Us constitution

What is the purpose of government according to most of the people interviewed in the video?
to protect the people
When asked about the purpose of government, which of the following was NOT mentioned by any of the respondents
to assure a system of checks and balances
The Framers of the Constitution listed the following as the function(s) of American government:
establish justice
• B. ensure domestic tranquility
• C. provide for the common defense
• D. promote the general welfare
What was Shays’ Rebellion
a rebellion by farmers in western Massachusetts attempting to prevent their lands from being foreclosed upon
The Constitution was ratified in the year
1788.
The Bill of Rights was ratified in the year
1791.
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How many terms did George Washington serve as president before leaving office?
two terms
Marbury v. Madison confirmed the Supreme Court’s power to declare laws passed by Congress unconstitutional. What did the case involve
a disputed appointment to a minor government post
The first principal question posed in the letters deals with which of the following
whether to hasten the adoption of the Constitution
Which of the following does the Federal Farmer admit?
The federal system is defective AND some of the state governments are poorly administered.
The current government is described as which of the following
13 republics
According to the Federal Farmer, which of the following would suffer under the new government?
the remote states
According to the Federal Farmer, the laws of free government rest on the confidence of whom?
the people
The rights of the people are derived from what common source
the British systems
What does the Federal Farmer want to see included in the new Constitution
a federal bill of rights
What group supported the ratification of the Constitution?
Federalists
Article I of the Constitution covers the following branch of government
legislative
Which branch does Article II of the Constitution cover?
executive
Which branch of the Constitution does Article III cover
judicial
How many senators from each state serve in the United States Senate?
2
How old must you be to serve in the House of Representatives?
25
Who is the President of the Senate
vice president
The executive power of the government is vested in
president
Who has the power to set up the inferior courts?
congress
How many states had to ratify the Constitution for it become the law of the land?
9
According to NCSL, states have taken which of the following actions to address the issue of gay marriage?
A. States have passed constitutional amendments defining marriage as between a woman and a man.
• B. States have passed legislation allowing same-sex marriage.
• C. States have provided spousal rights to same-sex couples through domestic partnerships or civil unions.
The majority of states have:
passed DOMAs
As of December 2009, how many states recognized gay marriages, civil unions, AND domestic partnerships?
9
What does DOMA stand for?
Defense of Marriage Acts
The “Full Faith and Credit Clause” of the Constitution:
does not directly address the issue
If a case involving interstate recognition of gay marriages is heard by the Supreme Court, the Court could decide the case based on:
A. reviewing the Constitution and upholding or striking down the federal DOMA laws
• B. reviewing the Constitution and recognizing or limiting states’ rights to make their own DOMA laws
• C. the Supremacy Clause in the U.S. Constitution
• D. the Full Faith and Credit Clause
The origins of representative democracy can be traced to
ancient Rome
Who benefited from the Magna Carta?
the English nobility
Which of the following was guaranteed in the English Bill of Rights?
freedom from taxation without representation
Whose ideas about government greatly influenced the men who drafted the Declaration of Independence and the Constitution?
John Locke
What was the colonists’ primary complaint about the rule of the British Crown?
They were subject to heavy taxes from the British Crown.
Which of the following was a component of the Coercive Acts?
A. establishment of martial law
• B. requirements to quarter British soldiers
• C. closure of the port of Boston
• D. dissolution of the Massachusetts legislature
Which event directly resulted from the Coercive Acts?
the meeting of the First Continental Congress
Which section of the Declaration of Independence contains arguments on the right to revolution?
the second section, based on Lockean philosophy
Who was given the primary responsibility for drafting the Declaration of Independence?
Thomas Jefferson
What were the main ideas expressed in the Declaration of Independence
individual liberties and the government’s duty to protect them
The Articles of Confederation specified that the United States would be which form of government
a republic
What concerned the Founders in drafting the Articles of Confederation
A. mob rule
• B. arbitrary monarchical power
• C. the large size of the colonial territory
• D. the ability of the people to check the power of the government
What led the Founders to realize that the Articles of Confederation needed to be reconfigured?
A. crises like Shays’ Rebellion
• B. the inability of the national government to control financial concerns and raise taxes
• C. the disproportionate power held by the states
• D. the vulnerability of the new nation due to the lack of an executive
Which of the following was NOT a component of the Articles of Confederation
a bicameral legislature
As the Constitution was being drafted, who was most in support of equal representation in the national legislature?
small states, such as Rhode Island
Which of the following plans for representation was incorporated into the Connecticut Compromise?
Each state would be proportionally represented in one house of a bicameral legislature.
Debates at the Constitutional Convention surrounding the executive branch included which of the following?
BOTH how many executives and how to elect the executive
The Constitution differed from the Articles of Confederation in that it
gave Congress the power to establish a national court system.
What did it take for Virginia and New York to finally agree to ratify the Constitution
a promise to amend the document to clarify the limits on national government power
Why did the Framers choose a republican form of government when drafting the Constitution?
They wanted both to ensure that the people would be represented AND to limit the potential power of factions.
The principle of the separation of powers was PRIMARILY intended to do which of the following?
limit the power of the central government
The Framers divided power between which three branches of government?
the executive, the legislature, and the judiciary
Which of the four principles outlined in the Constitution has been a subject of ongoing debate? Choose the BEST answer.
federalism
How does the U.S. Constitution differ from many state constitutions?
The U.S. Constitution has only seven articles AND a much more rigorous amendment process.
What is the first stage of the amendment process for the U.S. Constitution?
proposal by two-thirds of both houses of Congress or by a national convention
What are the three major sections of the Constitution, according to the text?
the preamble, the branches of government, and the state and national governments
Articles I through III establish the structure for which of the following?
. branches of the national government
Article III gives Congress power over the judicial branch in which of the following ways?
both choice as to the number of justices on the Supreme Court AND the power to create lower federal courts
Why does the text describe the amendment process as a decision tree? Choose the BEST answer.
. The amendment process is comprised of a series of decisions made by various actors.
Why did the Framers make it relatively difficult to amend the Constitution? Choose the BEST answer.
They intended for all ratified amendments to have widespread support.
One-third of the amendments to the U.S. Constitution fall under which of the following categories?
civil liberties
In total, how many amendments have been added to the U.S. Constitution?
27
According to the text, which amendment has the Supreme Court largely ignored
sovereign immunity
Which amendment(s) may be considered “coercive” in regard to the states
the Civil War amendments
Eight of the seventeen amendments added after the Bill of Rights address which of the following issues?
federal elections
Which of the following statements about the amendment process is accurate?
The failure of the Equal Rights Act to become an amendment shows the difficulty of modifying the Constitution
Which of the following does the text consider an advantage of the amendment process?
Vague language allows for flexibility and diversity in interpretation
Which of the following government entities have powers that are or have historically been open to debate?
A. the states
• B. the executive branch
• C. the judicial branch
• D. the legislative branch
Which of the following accurately characterizes the necessary and proper clause
. It is both an enumerated power AND gives Congress the authority to carry out other vague powers.
The full faith and credit clause was intended for which purpose?
ensuring that states respect the laws of other states
The argument against the child labor law involved which two amendments
the Fifth and Tenth
According to the Tenth Amendment, powers not expressly delegated to the national government are reserved for which of the following?
The states
What did the Supreme Court decide in Hammer v. Dagenhart?
The law was invalidated
What does Justice Holmes argue in his dissent?
Congress has the power to make such legislation through the exercise of its commerce clause authority.
The Supreme Court case in this assignment concerns us darby
interstate commerce
What is the first and subsequent punishment for violating the Fair Labor Standards Act?
both a fine AND imprisonment
Which U.S. Supreme Court case did U.S. v. Darby overturn?
Hammer v. Dagenhart
What decision was reached in U.S. v. Darby?
The Fair Labor Standards Act should be upheld.
U.S. v. Darby was decided during which period of federalism
cooperative federalism
What issue does the U.S. v. Lopez case address?
gun-free school zones
What did the United States government argue in the Lopez case when it sought to convince the Court to uphold the constitutionality of the federal law in question
A. Possession of a firearm in a local school zone substantially affects interstate commerce.
• B. The costs of violent crime are substantial, and through insurance those costs are spread throughout the population.
• C. Violent crime reduces the willingness of individuals to travel to areas in the country that are perceived to be unsafe.
• D. The presence of guns in schools poses a substantial threat to the educational process.
According to the majority opinion of the Supreme Court, what would occur if the Court accepted all of the United States government’s arguments to uphold the constitutionality of this federal law
It would be hard to find an activity by an individual that Congress could not regulate.
General police powers are retained by
The states
The majority opinion of the Court states that possession of a handgun in a local school zone is
In “A Time for Choosing,” what does Reagan say the Founding Fathers sought to minimize?
the full power of centralized government
According to President Reagan in his First Inaugural Address, the federal government
has only the power granted to it by the people.
• B. has grown beyond what the people have consented to.
• C. was created by the states.
In which of the following ways are the two executive orders similar in their views on federalism?
They both agree that the people of the states are free to make laws in areas not restricted by the Constitution
In which of the following ways do the executive orders differ in their views on federalism?
A. Reagan states that the people created the national government, but Clinton states that the Constitution created it.
• B. Reagan focuses on state sovereignty, while Clinton highlights the supremacy of the national government.
• C. Reagan argues that liberties are best protected by limiting the national government, whereas Clinton argues that liberties are best protected by dividing power between the national government and the states.
• D. Reagan mentions the Tenth Amendment, but Clinton doesn’t
Which of the following would President Kennedy have to use to enforce the decision to integrate?
federal troops
Who decided that James Meredith could register for classes at the University of Mississippi?
the United States Supreme Court
Why did U.S. Attorney General Robert Kennedy and Mississippi Governor Barnett cancel their first plan to integrate the University of Mississippi?
Both men feared rioting by white Mississippians opposed to integration.
Governor Barnett did NOT abide by the U.S. Supreme Court decision to integrate the University of Mississippi because he thought segregation laws were
state decisions
Robert Kennedy was able to enforce the deal with Governor Barnett by telling him which of the following?
President Kennedy would expose the secret telephone conversations between Governor Barnett and himself.
According to historians, the way President Kennedy handled this situation can be attributed to his
failure to understand the ferocity of racism in the South.
Which of the following statements about federalism is correct?
Federalism was a subject of intense debate during the drafting of the Constitution
Madison’s concept of “double security” was PRIMARILY intended to check which of the following?
the abuse of political power
Federalism is BEST described as which of the following?
division of power between the federal and state governments
With regard to the federal government, states generally felt which of the following?
States both enjoyed their sovereignty AND believed that the federal government had certain responsibilities toward the states.
Which of the following characterizes the evolution of the balance of power between state, local, and national governments?
The federal government has progressively assumed greater responsibility for domestic and economic issues.
Which governmental institution is PRIMARILY credited with the most recent shift in the balance of power between the state and federal governments?
the Supreme Court
Which type of federalism is characterized by the national and state governments working independently of each other?
dual
Which of the following characterizes the power of the national government during the age of dual federalism?
A. independent of the states
• B. relatively low in comparison to the states
• C. pertaining mainly to commerce, defense, and international trade
• D. limited by the Supreme Court
During the age of dual federalism, the Supreme Court limited the power of the national government through its interpretation of which portion of the Constitution
the commerce clause
The issue that acted as a catalyst in the shift toward cooperative federalism was PRIMARILY of what nature?
economic and financial
The federal government became more involved in state and local matters through which of the following measures?
A. helping to provide public services
• B. assuming responsibility for stimulating the economy
• C. creating new federal programs
• D. the use of grants-in-aid
Incentives provided by grants-in-aid act as a substitute for which of the following? Choose the best answer
. constitutional authority
President Franklin D. Roosevelt’s New Deal legislation did which of the following
It ushered in an era during which the powers of the federal government were protected by the Supreme Court.
Issues causing a shift from cooperative to coercive federalism were PRIMARILY of what nature? Choose the best answer
social
How did the national government ensure cooperation with its policies during the era of coercive federalism?
both through the Supreme Court’s expanded interpretation of the commerce clause AND by threatening to remove funding from programs
According to the text, proponents of new federalism support which of the following measures?
returning power to the states
According to the text, the economic recession is likely to do which of the following?
shift the balance of power back toward the federal government
According to the text, the economic recession is likely to do which of the following?
shift the balance of power back toward the federal government
We currently consider the United States to be in which of the following eras of federalism?
modern federalism
Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding the struggle for power between the state and federal governments?
The struggle characterizes a federal system.
According to the text, which philosophical debate PRIMARILY caused the secession of the Southern states prior to the Civil War? Choose the best answer.
state sovereignty
Events such as the Civil War, the Great Depression, and the 9/11 terrorist attacks have generally resulted in which of the following?
shifts in the balance of power toward the federal government
New governmental entities were created in the wake of which of the following crises?
A. the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001
• B. Hurricane Katrina
• C. the Great Depression
• D. the Civil War
The national government withholding highway funding from states until they comply with national laws represents an example of which of the following?
coercive federalism
President Johnson, according to his 1966 statement, considered the establishment of which federal agency to be “an essential building block” for the future of the United States?
the Department of Transportation
Precedent set in which of the following areas could allow the federal government to preempt state activity in the regulation of net neutrality
interstate commerce
Scientific and technological developments affect issues of federalism in which of the following ways?
They both provide a means for presidential creation of public works projects AND they tend to dissolve boundaries between states, counties, and towns.
Reagan’s vision of federalism differed from most other modern presidents’ visions in which of the following ways?
He believed that a federal system should limit the scope of government in order to protect civil liberties.
Clinton’s 1998 executive order on federalism reflected ideas primarily attributed to which of the following?
the Federalists
According to the text, which of the following represents a major weakness of decentralization?
It results in highly inefficient policies
According to James Madison, a tyranny of the majority could be avoided in which of the following ways?
by both having a diversity of views AND extending the sphere of government
According to Robert Richards, many cases in the future regarding student speech will primarily have to do with
Internet and computer-based speech
How many justices were in the majority and how many were in the minority in the Morse v. Frederick decision
five in the majority and four in the minority
Which constitutional amendment forms the basis for the decision in Morse v. Frederick?
the First
In Tinker v. Des Moines School District, the specifics of the case had to do with
the wearing of black armbands.
Mary Beth Tinker was protesting
the Vietnam War
The majority decision in Tinker v. Des Moines School District ruled that
schools cannot ban clothing unless evidence suggests that a ban is necessary to avoid substantial interference with school discipline or the rights of others.
Why is World War II relevant to a discussion of civil liberties?
America was seen as a defender of liberty.
What characteristics made Hugo Black an anomaly
He was a member of the Ku Klux Klan, he was a liberal, AND he was from the South.
Why was Hugo Black a member of the Ku Klux Klan?
He needed campaign contributions from the Klan.
• B. He needed the organizational skills of the Klan.
• C. He needed the votes of the Klan to get elected.
What was the significance of Gideon v. Wainwright?
It guaranteed the right to an attorney.
What was the significance of Miranda v. Arizona?
It required police to notify suspects of their legal rights.
Which state originated the law in question in this case?
Texas
Attorney Weddington, who represented “Jane Roe,” argues that the following two amendments of the Constitution support the right to privacy:
9th and 14th
According to Weddington, the Constitution attaches protection to a person:
at the time of birth
In which Texas court case did the court rule that a woman who self-induces an abortion is guilty of no crime?
Fondgren v. State
What was the compelling interest of Texas in this case ?
. the protection of fetal life
According to the state of Texas, when does life begin?
from the moment of impregnation
According to Mr. Floyd, representing the state of Texas, when does a woman have a choice regarding pregnancy?
before she actually becomes pregnant
Which of the following statements best describes the trimester system devised by the Court in its opinion?
States have an increasing right to regulate abortion as a pregnancy progresses, but abortion is allowed at any stage where a physician determines it is necessary to preserve the life or health of the woman.
Public health has been primarily considered a responsibility of
the states.
Which term means the deliberate release of a harmful biologic agent to intimidate civilians and their government?
. bioterrorism
Which event(s) influenced public health preparedness to deal with biological attacks in the United States?
the September 11th, 2001, terrorist attacks AND the 2001 anthrax attacks in the United States
What legislation permits a governor to declare a “state of public health emergency” and gives state public health officials the authority to take over all health care facilities in a state?
Model State Emergency Health Powers Act
According to George Annas, which of the following are arguments against the Model State Emergency Health Powers Act?
A. Laws should respond to real problems.
• B. The authority to respond is too broad.
• C. It does not make sense to put health officials in charge of every bioterrorist event.
• D. There is no evidence that the public will not cooperate in response to a bioterrorist attack.
Which of the following is NOT a key element of public health preparedness?
computing
According to Lawrence Gostin, which of the following are objections to the Model State Emergency Health Powers Act?
Federalism, emergency declarations, abuse of power, AND personal and economic libertarianism.
According to Lawrence Gostin:
health and security as well as personal liberty allow humans to flourish
Civil liberties can be described as which of the following?
freedoms that protect citizens from the government
The Bill of Rights does which of the following?
communicates what the federal government cannot do
Following the ratification of the Constitution, who proposed amendments designed to protect citizens?
the states
Prior to the passage of the Bill of Rights, how many amendments were approved by Congress?
12
For the first half of the nation’s history, the Bill of Rights protected citizens from which of the following?
. the national government
The First Amendment protects which of the following liberties?
A. religion
• B. assembly
• C. petition
• D. press
Which of the following make up the First Amendment freedom of religion?
both the establishment clause AND the free exercise clause
The National Cathedral does not violate the First Amendment because it does not violate which of the following?
the establishment clause
How many criteria make up the Lemon test?
3
Which of the following criteria was violated in Lemon v. Kurtzman?
The government action may not result in excessive government entanglement in religion.
Which of the following fall into Stage 1 of the Sherbert test?
Does the government action pose a substantial burden to the person’s ability to act on that belief?
Which of the following is considered a well-protected form of speech?
political speech
Which of the following is the most important post-1920s limitation on the freedom of political speech?
direct incitement
The Citizens United decision expanded the Supreme Court’s protection of political speech into which of the following arenas?
campaign donations
According to the relevant Supreme Court standard, less-protected forms of speech are those that do which of the following?
both fail to contribute to the public debate AND lack ideas that hold social value.
The Miller test is used as a standard to evaluate which form of speech?
obscenity
Which type of speech “inflicts injury or tends to incite an immediate breach of the peace”?
fighting words
An attempt by the government to block material before publication is known as which of the following?
prior restraint
According to the text, which form of freedom of assembly has the Supreme Court consistently found to be worthy of protection?
peaceful demonstrations in public spaces
How many amendments cover protections for the criminally accused?
5
Which of the following is an accurate statement pertaining to the rights of the criminally accused?
Protections have come under scrutiny in the past two decades.
Which of the following refers to the situation in which an otherwise invalid warrant is considered valid if the officer believed he was acting within the boundaries of the law?
good-faith exception
Which of the following might be considered an “exigent circumstance”?
a threat to an individual’s safety
The Fifth Amendment includes which of the following under its protections?
A. right to due process of law
• B. right to a jury trial for certain crimes
• C. protection against self-incrimination
• D. protection against loss of property
Which of the following statements concerning double jeopardy is INCORRECT?
. Double jeopardy protects an individual from being tried for the same crime in different jurisdictions
Which of the following reflects a change in the interpretation of the Sixth Amendment from the past 50 years?
Poor defendants in felony cases are now provided counsel by the state
Which of the following are considered rights guaranteed to the criminally accused by the Sixth Amendment?
A. an impartial jury
• B. a jury composed of one’s peers
• C. counsel
• D. a speedy trial
The Eighth Amendment and the Court’s interpretation of it protect the criminally accused from which of the following?
A. excessive bail
• B. drawing and quartering
• C. execution of juvenile persons
• D. excessive fines
Which of the following represents an accurate statement regarding the death penalty?
Several states have placed a moratorium on the death penalty.
The idea of dual citizenship in the context of civil liberties refers to which of the following?
Americans being subject to both state and national protections
The 14th Amendment did which of the following?
reversed dual citizenship
Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding the freedom of religion?
Thomas Jefferson requested that his authorship of the Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom be listed on his tombstone
When did the Supreme Court incorporate the freedoms of speech, press, and assembly?
in the 1920s and 1930s
Which of the following rights has NOT been incorporated?
. the right to a jury trial in a civil case
Which of the following rights have NOT been fully incorporated or are of questionable incorporation?
both the right to bear arms AND no excessive bail and fines
The current debate over individual liberties centers on which of the following?
obstacles to both personal self-realization AND political participation
When did the Court establish the trimester system to structure a woman’s rights during pregnancy?
Roe v. Wade (1973)
In which case(s) did the Supreme Court clarify the restrictions that states may impose on abortion?
BOTH Webster v. Reproductive Health Services and Planned Parenthood v. Casey
The Supreme Court’s ruling in Bowers v. Hardwick did which of the following?
found that states could restrict sexual activity unrelated to procreation
What was the Court’s ruling in Lawrence v. Texas?
It extended the right to privacy to sexual conduct between consenting homosexual adults.
Oregon’s Death with Dignity Act does which of the following?
allows physicians to prescribe lethal medication for terminally ill patients
The Supreme Court’s rulings on the right to die tend toward which of the following?
supporting the autonomy of states in the area of physician-assisted suicide
What group included Alice Paul and Lucy Burns?
suffragists
Which US president reconsidered his position and supported women’s suffrage as a war measure?
Woodrow Wilson
In what year did the states ratify the constitutional amendment that granted women the right to vote
1920
Which federal amendment to the Constitution gave women the right to vote?
19
Which American city hosted the first women’s rights convention
Seneca Falls, NY
Which national political party was the first to support suffrage for women?
Teddy Roosevelt’s Progressive Party
Who were the founders of the American Equal Rights Association?
Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Susan B. Anthony
In Brown v. Board of Education, the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP) Legal Defense Fund challenged specific racially discriminatory practices in the following state(s):
Kansas, South Carolina, Virginia, AND Delaware
Brown focused on racial segregation practiced against African Americans in which of the following places?
public schools
Which constitutional amendment did the NAACP lawyers rely on when asserting to the Court that the “separate but equal” doctrine was unconstitutional?
14
Which U.S. Supreme Court case initially established the constitutionality of the doctrine of “separate but equal”?
Plessy v. Ferguson
Which adverse effects on African American children did the Supreme Court cite for evidence of the harm caused by public school segregation?
A. Public school segregation deprives African American children of some of the educational benefits they would gain in an integrated public school system.
• B. Public school segregation denotes inferiority of African Americans as a group.
• C. Public school segregation adversely affects the motivation of black children to learn.
• D. Public school segregation slows down the educational and mental development of black children.
In the letter, Dr. Martin Luther King Jr. defends
nonviolent protests against the segregationist policies of Birmingham’s municipal government and merchants.
According to King, why has he come to Birmingham from his home in Atlanta?
to fight against the severe racial injustices being perpetrated against African Americans by the political and economic elites in Birmingham
According to King, which of the following is NOT a basic step in a successful nonviolent campaign of civil disobedience?
gaining the cooperation of prominent local political and business leaders
Which of the following places did King describe as “probably the most thoroughly segregated city in the United States”?
Birmingham, AL
Who does King reference when he writes “an unjust law is a human law that is not rooted in eternal law and natural law”?
Saint Thomas Aquinas
In King’s letter, he expresses his disappointment with the attitude of which of the following groups?
white moderates
What group does King criticize for failing to support his nonviolent strategy of civil disobedience to end racial injustice in Birmingham?
the leadership of white churches in the South
What is the significance of the national historic site in Little Rock, Arkansas?
Little Rock Central High School became a national emblem of the struggle over public school desegregation.
Which civil rights leader was a prominent advocate of black education who stressed industrial schooling and gradual social adjustment rather than political activism for African Americans?
Booker T. Washington
Who advocated racial separatism and a “Back to Africa” colonization program?
. Marcus Garvey
Which landmark law outlawed racial discrimination in public schools, public places, and employment?
Civil Rights Act of 1964
Which landmark law suspended literacy tests and other voter tests and authorized federal supervision of voter registration in states and individual voting districts?
Voting Rights Act of 1965
Which of the following were strategies used to further the goals of the Civil Rights Movement?
A. bus boycotts
• B. sit-ins
• C. freedom rides
• D. protests
For which of the following do civil rights require equal protection?
A. gender
• B. age
• C. national origin
• D. race
At which point did the concept of equality arise in U.S. political debate?
ratification 14th
The equal protection clause prohibits which type of discrimination?
“unreasonable”
Affirmative action represents an example of which of the following?
guaranteeing equality of outcome
Whom did the Framers include in their conception of civil rights?
white males
Which state had failed to ban the slave trade by the deadline specified in the Constitution?
south carolina
Which of the following represents an accurate statement of what occurred in 1808?
slave population over 1 million
What was the significance of the Missouri Compromise?
It granted freedom to any slave whose master established residence in a free territory.
What was the immediate effect of Abraham Lincoln’s election to the presidency?
South Carolina seceded from the Union.
The ruling in which case established the doctrine of “separate but equal”?
Plessy v. Ferguson
The American Woman Suffrage Association differed from the National Woman Suffrage Association in which of the following ways?
It targeted amendments to state constitutions
Who drafted the 19th Amendment to the Constitution?
susan b anthony
The NAACP was founded primarily to do which of the following?
combat violence against African Americans
The NAACP primarily targeted inequities in what educational institutions?
graduate and professional programs
The “Doll Study” was used as evidence in which of the following cases?
Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka, Kansas
In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that schools must desegregate “with all deliberate speed”?
Brown v. Board II
Who were “The Little Rock Nine”?
the group of African American students attempting to attend Central High School
What was the immediate effect of Rosa Parks’ arrest?
a yearlong bus boycott in Montgomery, Alabama
Which of the following used radical protest tactics such as sit-ins and freedom rides?
. both CORE AND SNCC
To whom did Martin Luther King, Jr., direct his “Letter from a Birmingham Jail”?
white clergymen
Which of the following drew national attention to the issue of racial inequality? Choose the BEST answer.
television coverage of police brutality
Whom did Martin Luther King, Jr., allege had written a “bad check” to African Americans?
founding fathers
Who was involved in the passage of national civil rights legislation?
A. President John F. Kennedy
• B. President Lyndon B. Johnson
• C. The United States Congress
• D. Martin Luther King, Jr.
Which of the following became referred to as “Bloody Sunday”?
the police attack on participants in a march from Selma to Montgomery
Which group did President Kennedy task with the investigation of the treatment of women in American society?
the Presidential Commission on the Status of Women
Protective legislation was concerned with which of the following?
A. accounting for the ways in which women differed from men
• B. policies that addressed women’s biological differences from men
• C. legislation concerned with the exploitation of women
• D. policies designed to promote women’s health
In what year was the Equal Rights Amendment added to the Constitution?
wasn’t added
Korematsu v. United States generated which standard of review?
. “compelling state interest test”
Which of the following standards of review are used to evaluate government action in relation to the equal protection clause?
A. intermediate scrutiny
• B. rational basis test
• C. strict scrutiny
• D. both strict scrutiny AND intermediate scrutiny
In which of the following standards of review are the interests of the individual given the most weight?
strict scrutiny
What must the government prove to satisfy the intermediate standard of review?
The policy is substantially related to a legitimate government objective.
According to the text, which group has notably taken advantage of media relations in order to further its cause of obtaining full civil rights? Choose the BEST answer.
the homosexual community
The American Indian Movement is noted for its use of which of the following types of tactics?
occupation of symbolic property
Which of the following have enjoyed legislative success in obtaining at least partial protection of their civil rights?
A. disabled Americans
• B. American Indians
• C. Mexican Americans
• D. women
How many of the people interviewed mention the name of a person representing them in the House or Senate?
4
How many of the people interviewed list a specific issue their senator or House representative is working on?
1
How long is the term of a member of the House of Representatives?
2 years
How many Senators represent each state?
2
Which of the following is a qualification to serve in the Senate?
Senators must reside in the state they represent, be thirty-years old at the time of election, and must have been U.S. citizens nine years before election.
Who serves as President of the Senate?
Vice
The House of Representatives has the sole authority to exercise which of the following constitutional powers?
impeach certain executive branch officials and any federal judge
The Senate has the sole power to exercise which of the following constitutional powers?
ratify treaties AND try impeached officials
To convict during an impeachment trial, how many of senators present in the legislative body need to vote for conviction?
two-thirds of the senators present
The national census is performed to determine the number of representatives for each state in the House. How often is it performed?
10
What constitutes a quorum to do business in each chamber of Congress?
a majority of the members of each respective chamber of Congress
The constitutional power granted to Congress “To make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution the foregoing Powers” is known as the:
elastic clause
Which of the following happens first in the legislative process?
the bill is introduced by a member of Congress
Where does most of the legislative work occur?
in congressional committees
How many bills are favorably reported out of committee and considered by the full House and Senate?
1 in 6
The Rules Committee exists
ONLY in the House of Representatives.
What vote margin in the House and the Senate is required for Congress to override a presidential veto?
a two-thirds majority
Considering the dynamic legislative process, which of the following legislative attributes seems necessary to ensure that an introduced bill becomes an enacted law?
energy, persistence, AND competence
Legislators create broader public support for a bill by
A. getting media attention.
• B. working with interest groups.
• C. developing a list of supporters.
• D. connecting the bill to current events.
What does former representative Lee Hamilton claim to be the hardest part of the job for a member of Congress?
voting on legislation
Where do members of Congress get their information before deciding how to vote on a particular piece of legislation?
A. special-interest groups and think tanks
• B. pages of testimony collected by congressional committees
• C. correspondence and personal communications from colleagues in Congress recommending votes on particular legislation
• D. constituent letters
Approximately how many times does a member of Congress vote each legislative year?
400
Congress is made up of how many elected members?
535
What did New York Times writer James Reston suggest to members of Congress?
B. Members need to isolate themselves from political pressures and consider the best interests of the entire country.
How many women of each party were elected to the House of Representatives in 2006?
50 Democrats and 19 Republicans
According to Juliet Eilperin of the Washington Post, Louise Slaughter is going to be elected chair of which House committee?
the Rules Committee
In her speech at the 2002 Georgetown commencement ceremony, Nancy Pelosi describes the experience of first sitting down at a table in the White House with other congressional leaders. Which historical figure does she imagine is in the room with her at that moment?
susan b anthony
What was the average percentage of female candidates running for office within the Democratic Party from 1992 to 2008?
19.3
What was the average percentage of female candidates running for office within the Republican Party from 1992 to 2008?
10.5
What is the minimum age for serving in the House of Representatives?
25
Which of the following states has only one “at-large” member in the House of Representatives?
alaska
Which portion of the Constitution gives Congress the power to make laws?
the necessary and proper clause
Which of the following members of Congress would represent the greatest number of constituents?
senator from ca
According to the text, senators tend to be which of the following?
issue generalists
Which of the following powers is unique to the House?
origination of revenue bills
When did Congress pass a bill to limit its size?
1929
Which of the following provides the basis for proportional representation in our national legislature?
the decennial census
The deliberate manipulation of district lines for electoral advantage is known as what?
gerrymandering
When did the Supreme Court decide to review the redistricting process in order to prevent exploitation of the system? Choose the BEST answer.
baker v carr
How many bills are generally introduced in each Congress?
1000 s
Which of the following is the first to see a bill after it is proposed?
the clerk of the house
At which point is a bill sent to the Senate for approval?
when it has been passed by the full House following debate and amendment
Which of the following is unique to the Senate bill review process?
potential for filibuster
filibuster
…, A procedural practice in the Senate whereby a senator refuses to relinquish the floor and thereby delays proceedings and prevents a vote on a controversial issue.
What term is used to describe a situation in which the president does not sign a bill before Congress adjourns?
pocket veto
Where do we find the roots of political parties?
the debate between the Federalists and the anti-Federalists
Which of the following is specified in the Constitution?
the enumerated powers of Congress
Who is the institutional leader of the House?
the Speaker
When does the vice president vote?
in the event of a tie in the Senate
What is a primary function of whips within Congress?
to enforce party discipline
Which of the following is considered a standing committee?
standing
When might a conference committee form?
. at the end of the legislative process
Which of the following describes the Committee on Homeland Security?
A. ad hoc
• B. select
• C. standing
• D. permanent
Which of the following can influence whether a member is selected for a committee assignment?
A. demographic profile
• B. personal expertise
• C. party loyalty
• D. seniority
Which of the following had an impact on the process of passing the health care reform bill?
A. concerns about constituents
• B. coalitions within the Democratic Party
• C. pressure from President Obama
• D. pressure from Republicans
Which of the following would generally be considered the PRIMARY personal goal of most members of Congress
winning reelection
Which of the following would be considered an institutional norm developed in Congress?
reciprocity
Which of the following statements regarding interest groups and lobbyists is MOST accurate?
Interest groups supply legislators with position papers and memos.
The anti-Federalists worried about which of the following?
both a small Senate AND representing the people of America
In which of the following categories is Congress most representative of the U.S. population at large?
. Protestant affiliated
Which of the following would be an accurate statement regarding women in Congress?
Membership in the U.S. Congress reflects the average membership of women in parliaments around the world.
What is the most common professional background among members of Congress?
law
Membership in Congress can be generally described as which of the following?
good old white boys
If we consider a member of Congress to be acting as a delegate, the member is doing which of the following?
following the will of his or her constituency
If Representative Jeff Miller voted for President George W. Bush’s financial bailout package against the will of his constituents, we would say that he was doing which of the following?
acting as a trustee
Spending for district-specific projects is known as which of the following? Choose the best answer.
earmarking
As the 37th president of the United States, Richard M. Nixon proved to be a highly controversial leader whose domestic political activities created a constitutional crisis for the nation. He is best known for
watergate
Shortly after Nixon decided to fire his two most trusted aides, John Ehrlichman and Bob Haldeman, he realized that
he must establish his ignorance of the Watergate dealings in order to prevent his impeachment.
After Nixon’s “administration shake-up” speech on the evening of April 30, 1973, in which he addressed the issue of Watergate for the first time, he
spoke with his top political advisor, H.R. Haldeman
The Reverend Billy Graham called Nixon after the president’s speech to the nation on April 30, 1973. During this phone conversation, Reverend Graham
told Nixon that his public professions of sincerity and humility would help him gain the sympathy of the American public.
What proved to be Nixon’s final undoing in the Watergate scandal?
the tapes that Nixon had secretly recorded in the Oval Office that included conversations clearly implicating himself in the Watergate break-in and cover-up
According to Wordle, what is the most frequently occurring word in President Johnson’s 1964 address?
must
Which of the following BEST describes the main themes of Johnson’s speech?
stimulating the economy and reducing poverty
What is the most frequently occurring word in President Lincoln’s 1864 address?
states
From the Wordle information, what can you ascertain about the historical context of Lincoln’s speech?
The U.S. was in the midst of a national crisis.
What is the most frequently occurring word in President Bush’s 2002 address?
america
According to the information from Wordle, what seems to be the number one policy priority of President George W. Bush in January of 2002?
fighting a global war on terrorism
Why did Congress pass the War Powers Resolution?
to assert congressional power over military engagement
Under Article 1, Section 8 of the Constitution, Congress is responsible for the following:
making all federal laws
When was the War Powers Resolution enacted?
1973
What is the intent of the Consultation section of the War Powers Resolution?
to ensure that the president regularly consults with Congress regarding any military engagements
How must the president report to Congress under the Reporting provision of the War Powers Resolution?
in writing
Lyndon B. Johnson succeeded which president?
jfk
President Johnson was concerned about the possibility of war with
Cuba AND the Soviet Union.
What key issue or issues did Lyndon Johnson face when he became president?
political opposition to the war in Vietnam AND a movement to attain full and equal rights for African Americans
Why did President Johnson secretly record over 9,000 telephone conversations during his presidency?
He wanted to be able to hold people accountable for the promises they made to him during conversations.
What term or terms have been used to describe President Johnson’s personality?
A. seductive
• B. persuasive
• C. cajoling
• D. larger than life
President Johnson signed which of the following into law during his administration?
the Voting Rights Act of 1965, the Civil Rights Act of 1964, AND the Voting Rights Act of 1965
On the evening Johnson was sworn in as president of the United States, he called Supreme Court Justice Arthur Goldberg to seek his advice on
the best way to unite the country.
President Johnson sought loyalty and cooperation from several former Kennedy aides and friends, including
Larry O’Brien
During the initial investigation of Kennedy’s assassination, FBI Director J. Edgar Hoover informed President Johnson that
Lee Harvey Oswald acted alone.
What security recommendations does J. Edgar Hoover make in one of the recorded conversations with Johnson?
Hoover wants Johnson to ride only in bulletproof vehicles.
Whom did President John F. Kennedy call in October of 1962 for advice on dealing with the Cuban Missile Crisis?
Dwight D. Eisenhower
What did the Kennedys threaten to do to Governor Ross Barnett if we he did not agree with their plan for integrating the University of Mississippi?
They threatened to publicly reveal tapes of their secret negotiations with him.
Whom in particular did President Lyndon Johnson reach out to in the aftermath of John F. Kennedy’s assassination?
Jacqueline Kennedy
Which of the following BEST describes what the tapes reveal about President Johnson’s attitudes toward the conflict in Vietnam?
conflicted
What do the tapes reveal about President Richard Nixon’s private attitudes toward African Americans?
He felt that they were intellectually inferior to whites
Which law school did President Nixon disparage when considering candidates for appointment to the U.S. Supreme Court?
havard
Which of the following is an implied presidential power?
issuing executive orders
Which of the following is an expressed presidential power?
granting pardons
Which of the following is a check on the president’s power to appoint department heads?
Senate confirmation
Which of the following is a duty the president assumes as a public opinion leader?
shape the national agenda
President Ronald Reagan’s management style resembled which of the following?
ceo
Which of the following would represent an accurate statement regarding executive orders?
Executive orders are derived from the presidential oath of office and the executive power clause
Executive privilege was invoked in which of the following cases?
the Watergate scandal
The president’s veto power is derived from which of the following?
Article I of the Constitution
When might we expect to see a large number of vetoes?
when there is a Republican Congress and a Democratic president
Which of the following reflects a duty of the vice president?
to vote in the Senate if there is a tie
Which of the following powers would a president most likely utilize toward the end of his term?
granting a pardon to a convicted criminal
Which of the following represents a presidential check on judicial power? Choose the best answer.
granting amnesty to a group of people
Which of the following could be considered a substitute for a treaty ratified by the Senate?
an executive agreement
Under what circumstances might the president use the power to receive foreign dignitaries and appoint U.S. ambassadors? Choose the best answer.
to recognize the legitimacy of other nations
When was the last time Congress declared war on another nation?
World War II (1941)
In entering into conflicts in Afghanistan and Iraq, President George W. Bush did which of the following?
acted in his capacity as commander in chief
How many executive departments existed during the time that George Washington served as president?
3
How large is the federal civilian workforce in the executive branch?
over 2.6 million employees
Which of the following was a primary focus of government policies and programs between the 1780s and 1930s?
commerce between states and with other nations
Which of the following occurred during the Great Depression and its aftermath?
The executive branch created a number of new bureaucratic offices.
The relationship between a president and his party may be described as which of the following?
symbiotic
Presidents depend on their party in which of the following capacities?
mobilizing voters
Which of the following would represent an instance of the president “going public”?
circumventing Congress to petition the people directly
The United States’ role as a world leader has which of the following consequences?
A. influence on importing and exporting
• B. increased presidential power
• C. ripple effects from domestic economic activity
• D. increased interconnectedness
Thanks to globalization, which of the following now potentially require quick decision making?
A. missile defense issues
• B. nuclear issues
• C. diplomatic issues
• D. national security issues
In the name of defending the Constitution, President Franklin Roosevelt set which of the following precedents? Choose the best answer.
recommending presidential programs and budgets to Congress
Why might the Founders have limited the powers of the executive branch?
They wanted to avoid the tyrannical power of a king.
In which of the following areas is presidential power limited?
declaring war
Which of the following would be considered a check on presidential power?
A. Senate approval of a Supreme Court nomination
• B. statutory authorization of the use of force
• C. congressional override of a veto
• D. congressional confirmation of an ambassador
On which of the following did Congress override the president’s veto?
the War Powers Resolution
What was Bill Clinton’s approval rating upon leaving office?
66
The fact that Bill Clinton left office with a much higher approval rating than that of George W. Bush can be explained by which of the following factors?
the thriving economy under the Clinton administration
• B. the wars in Iraq and Afghanistan initiated by the Bush administration
• C. Clinton’s charismatic reputation
• D. Bush’s unpopular personality
According to Richard Neustadt, a president’s performance is directly related to which of the following?
the power to persuade
James David Barber, a noted presidential scholar, achieved renown when he foresaw problems based on the character of which president?
nixon
According to presidential historians, which president ranked first in terms of leadership characteristics?
lincoln
According to Barber’s typology, which of the following personality types potentially makes the best type of president?
active positive
According to the text, what determines the quality of presidential leadership?
personality and character
Which of the following does Weissert NOT say is an outcome of a job in the bureaucracy?
being trusted by the public
How is the bureaucracy like a stern parent?
A. It tells you “no.”
• B. It reminds you what the rules are.
• C. It doesn’t treat you like a special case.
• D. none of these options
What is a collective action problem, and how does bureaucracy help to solve it?
A. A collective action problem is when group goals and individual goals differ. Bureaucracy provides a structure that protects group goals.
Which of the following is NOT true?
B. Many young Americans are seeking jobs in the bureaucracy.
According to the mission statement, whom does the Department of Education serve?
A. parents
• B. students
• C. local school systems
• D. students AND local school systems
According to the mission statement, whom does the Department of Labor serve?
. wage earners AND retirees
According to the mission statement and additional information from the “What We Do” section, whom does the Department of the Interior serve?
A. Native American tribal nations
• B. conventional and alternative energy companies (oil, gas, wind, etc.)
• C. state and local water resource agencies
• D. America’s island communities
According to information on the mission statement page, whom does the Department of Agriculture serve?
A. farmers
• B. food markets
• C. consumers
Which of the following are concerns raised at the beginning of the video about health care quality in the United States?
D. low life expectancy, high infant mortality, AND low overall ranking by the World Health Organization
Throughout the video, Senators Mikulski and Coburn disagree with one another while working on their committee’s health care reform bill. On which Senate committee do they serve together?
HELP (Health, Education, Labor, and Pensions)
What is CER, or comparative effectiveness research?
CER is the collection of data on health care practices in an effort to develop recommendations and protocols about what drugs, devices, and procedures are most beneficial or effective.
How does bureaucratic drift relate to the zone of indifference? (Hint: Professor Weissert discusses this in the video.)
C. Bureaucratic drift describes the ability of bureaucrats to favor one branch or the other when they implement legislation; the zone of indifference is the area where bureaucrats have leeway to implement legislation in ways that will not arouse the opposition of either branch.
In the video an audience member asks Senator Obama, “How will you change the mind of federal bureaucrats?” Obama humorously replies:
“I’ll tell you how I’ll change the federal bureaucracy: they will be working for me.”
In the videotape, Obama notes that there are a lot of good public servants in the federal government and that he wants to replace those who are retiring with people who
believe in government.
What personal attributes does Obama say he will be looking for when replacing those retiring from the bureaucracy
attention to serving the people, integrity, excellence, and independence
According to Barack Obama, a key problem with the members of the bureaucracy advising President Bush was that they told the president what he wanted to hear. Based on this criticism, which of the following statements is Obama MOST likely to support?
Bureaucrats should be honest, open, and fearless in sharing opinions.
Which of the following is responsible for enacting laws?
the executive branch
The executive branch contains which of the following?
A. the vice president
• B. the cabinet
• C. the president
• D. the federal bureaucracy
A bureaucracy has which of the following characteristics?
. It reflects a division of labor.
The use of paperwork in a bureaucracy lends itself to which of the following?
. standardization
A worker at the upper end of a bureaucratic hierarchy would probably be which of the following?
a person of greater authority
How many entities make up the Executive Office of the President?
13
What is an independent agency?
an organization set up by Congress
The Federal Reserve System is which of the following
an independent regulatory commission
Executive departments generally correspond to which of the following?
Congressional committees
The Department of Agriculture may be considered which of the following?
clientele-oriented
An issue network is made up of all EXCEPT which of the following?
president
What distinguishes an iron triangle from an issue network?
An iron triangle tends to be more powerful than an issue network.
Which of the following serves narrow rather than general interests?
the Department of Agriculture
At which point in time did the federal bureaucracy first significantly increase in size
the election of President Andrew Jackson
The spoils system had which of the following effects?
. the expansion of the federal bureaucracy
Which of the following issues were brought to national attention during the Progressive Era?
A. land conservation
• B. government corruption
• C. wealth disparities
• D. voting rights
The Pendleton Act did which of the following
. required federal employees to be hired based on merit
The Progressive Era can be regarded as a reaction to which of the following? Choose the BEST answer.
the Industrial Revolution and its effects
The campaign promises of which of the following resulted in an expansion of the federal bureaucracy?
. both Andrew Jackson AND Franklin Roosevelt
According to the text, what has come to be viewed as the moment when the federal bureaucracy became a crucial provider of social services?
the passage of the Social Security Act of 1935
After World War II ended, what happened to the federal bureaucracy?
President Truman made efforts to streamline it.
The goals of the Great Society initiative most closely resembled those of which of the following?
new deal
Which of the following measures were efforts related to the Great Society
A. educational aid
• B. urban revitalization
• C. health care programs
• D. environmental protections
Which of the following BEST describes President Reagan’s efforts to shrink the government?
hindered by a Democratic majority in the House of Representatives
The Reagan Revolution may be seen as a reaction to which of the following?
ineffective Great Society programs
Which of the following reflects the most important expansion of bureaucracy since the Great Society era?
establishment of the Department of Homeland Security
Which of the following is the primary source of the power of discretion given to bureaucrats?
Congress
For a bureaucrat, which of the following would allow for a maximal amount of discretion in interpretation?
vaguely worded legislation
Regulatory decisions made by bureaucrats can be affected by which of the following?
A. available information
• B. stakeholder influence
• C. issue networks
• D. agency mission
Which of the following statements regarding bureaucratic oversight is MOST accurate?
Congressional concern for oversight is strongly rooted in reelection prospects.
What is the primary means by which the president checks the power of the bureaucracy? Choose the BEST answer.
the power of appointments
A desire to reform the federal bureaucracy is often expressed by which of the following?
A. the American public
• B. Republican presidential candidates
• C. Democratic presidential candidates
• D. both Republican AND Democratic presidential candidates
Which of the following reflect common suggestions as to how the federal bureaucracy should be reformed?
A. It should become more efficient.
• B. It should become more effective.
• C. It should become more economical.
• D. It should use fewer taxpayer dollars.
According to a 2007 poll, Americans most favored cutting which of the following programs?
space
Which of the following accurately describes the program termination efforts of the Republican-controlled 104th Congress?
Efforts focused on two fairly small agencies.
Devolution entails which of the following? Choose the BEST answer.
delegating power to state and local governments
Devolution efforts such as welfare reform have resulted in which of the following
A. better services in some states
• B. poorer services in some states
• C. state-level experiments
• D. varying levels of assistance
The move to privatization has engendered which of the following concerns?
both oversight AND government accountability
The use of security contractors in Iraq represents an example of which of the following?
privatization
Which of the following are among the findings of Congress?
Metropolitan areas are expanding AND property deterioration is a result of air pollution.
Who could be affected by federal laws to implement the Clean Air Act?
Individual states AND motor vehicle manufacturers
Which of the following could be construed as “reasonable Federal, State, and local government actions”?
A. State regulations of motor vehicle emissions
• B. Federal funding of local programs to control air pollution
• C. Two or more states entering into mutual assistance compacts to prevent air pollution
What additional information could be needed to implement the Clean Air Act?
A. Which metropolitan areas extend into two or more states
• B. What the productive capacity of a given area is
• C. Regional ozone trends
What would limit the implementation of the Clean Air Act?
. Differing Uniform laws between bordering states AND conflict between state laws and treaties entered into by the U.S.
The Supreme Court is the court of highest authority in the federal judiciary. What two types of lower courts complete the basic structure of the federal court system?
trial courts and appellate courts
Which of the following describes a role of the Supreme Court?
resolve disputes among the lower federal courts
How many circuit courts of appeals make up the U.S. Courts of Appeals?
13
How many judicial districts comprise the U.S. District Courts?
94
Which states make up the Fifth Circuit Court of Appeals?
Texas, Louisiana, and Mississippi
According to a poll cited by Justice O’Connor, how many Americans can name the three branches of government?
One-third of Americans know this information.
What order do Supreme Court justices follow when discussing cases
The chief justice speaks first, and then the associate justices speak in order from most senior to most junior.
Why does Justice O’Connor say that justices must learn to “disagree agreeably”?
Because they serve together for many years in a collegial environment.
Why was Nixon challenged publicly about his initial Supreme Court nominations?
His nominees were considered to have mediocre legal qualifications by the American Bar Association.
Which of the following criteria did President Nixon consider when choosing his final two Supreme Court nominees?
A. the reputation of the law school the potential nominee attended
• B. the intellectual qualifications of the potential nominee
• C. the religious affiliation of the potential nominee
• D. the political ideology of the potential nominee
Why did Nixon drop California Judge Mildred Lillie from his list of potential nominees
The American Bar Association had reviewed Judge Lillie’s qualifications and found her to be unfit for the Court.
Who suggested that Nixon consider U.S. Department of Justice attorney William Rehnquist as a possible nominee?
Attorney General John Mitchell
Why was the Rehnquist nomination to the Court a long shot?
. Rehnquist was relatively unknown to Nixon.
Justice William J. Brennan served on the Supreme Court from 1956 to 1990 and is considered by many scholars to be one of the most
liberal and influential justices in modern Court history.
Which documents does Justice Brennan consider to have “solemnly committed the United States to be a country where the dignity and rights of all persons [are] equal before all authority”?
the Declaration of Independence, Constitution, and Bill of Rights
In Justice Brennan’s speech at Georgetown University, he says that the Constitution is fundamentally
a public text.
What three aspects of constitutional interpretation does Justice Brennan reference in his speech?
public nature, obligatory character, and consequentiality
In Justice Brennan’s view, when Supreme Court justices interpret the Constitution they should be aware that they are advancing
. their understanding of the Constitution for the broader community, not for themselves alone.
What approach does Judge Robert Bork take in interpreting the Constitution?
original intent
According to Judge Bork, it was possible for him and Justice Scalia to disagree about what when they were both on the same lower court?
the meanings (original intent) behind the principles embodied by the Constitution
What is Judge Bork’s opinion of stare decisis (the idea that legal precedents should be allowed to stand in order to maintain legal stability) in the context of Supreme Court decisions?
. He believes that legal precedents are far less important at the level of the Supreme Court and in constitutional law generally.
What is Judge Bork’s prediction on the how the U.S. Supreme Court would rule regarding the right of homosexual couples to marry?
The Court will, in the next several years, affirm the constitutionality of homosexual marriage.
What is the minimum number of Supreme Court justices that have served at any one time?
6
The Judiciary Act did which of the following?
created a three-tiered federal court structure
Which of the following statements accurately describes the Supreme Court’s early history?
The Supreme Court met in a variety of places.
Which of the following would fall into the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
a decision made in the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Second Circuit
What does the Supreme Court consider when hearing a case on appeal?
application of the law
Which of the following hears the most cases per year?
the state trial courts
By what means was the Supreme Court’s power first significantly increased?
Marbury v. Madison
Judicial review allows the Supreme Court to do all EXCEPT which of the following?
A. interpret the constitutionality of state laws
• B. overturn presidential vetoes
• C. rule on the constitutionality of federal law
• D. be the final arbiter of legal constitutionality
• E. invalidate provisions of state laws
Which of the following allows Congress to check the power of the Supreme Court
power to amend
The Supreme Court’s powers are limited in which of the following ways?
It cannot choose which cases enter the judicial system AND it cannot implement its own decisions.
According to the text, when did the Supreme Court face particular difficulty in enforcing its rulings?
desegregation
What percentage of cases submitted does the Supreme Court actually hear?
less than 1
In order for a case to reach the Supreme Court, it needs to meet which of the following criteria
The parties must be able to prove personal or economic injury.
What is the first step a case on appeal goes through in its journey to the Supreme Court?
A petition for a writ of certiorari is filed.
What happens during the oral argument stage of cases heard before the Supreme Court?
Justices ask questions not answered in the briefs.
The chief justice possesses influence over cases heard by the Supreme Court in which of the following capacities?
He can act as a tiebreaker
When might a Supreme Court justice write a concurring opinion?
when the justice disagrees with the Court’s reasoning
Who is permitted to submit amicus curiae briefs to the Supreme Court?
both interest groups AND the solicitor general
Which of the following might a president consider when taking into account a commitment to diversity in selecting a Supreme Court nominee?
. religious affiliation
How can a judge be removed from office?
through impeachment by the House and conviction by the Senate
If every spot were vacant, approximately how many opportunities to appoint federal judges could a president have?
over 800
The legislature can influence the judicial nomination process through which of the following means?
A. senatorial courtesy
• B. Senate confirmation
• C. impeachment
• D. Senate Judiciary Committee approval
Senatorial courtesy is BEST described as which of the following?
. presidential consultation with the senators from a federal district court nominee’s home state
What is the third step to filling a Supreme Court vacancy?
The Senate Judiciary Committee holds hearings
Why was Justice Sotomayor’s nomination significant?
first hispanic
The current Supreme Court justices are primarily of which of the following religious affiliations?
catholic
According to the text, why did Judge Robert Bork receive such severe treatment during Senate confirmation proceedings
the likelihood of the Court overturning Roe v. Wade
President Barack Obama replaced which of the following Supreme Court justices?
both David Souter AND John Paul Stevens
Justice Ginsburg’s opinion in U.S. v. Virginia reflected which of the following?
her commitment to gender equality
Who equated cross burning with terrorism in Virginia v. Black?
Justice Thomas
Proponents of judicial restraint would tend to have which of the following characteristics?
respect for the roles of the other branches of government
Alexander Hamilton argued that the judicial branch had which of the following powers?
judgement
The anti-Federalists would have supported which of the following?
judicial restraint
What is political ideology?
beliefs on the scope and function of government
The decisions issued in District of Columbia v. Heller reflect which of the following?
The majority opinion reflected a literal interpretation of the Second Amendment.
The Supreme Court appears to be susceptible to which of the following?
A. cultural change
• B. amicus curiae briefs
• C. public opinion
• D. political context
What did the Supreme Court’s decision in Lawrence v. Texas reflect?
. a tendency for the Court’s position to follow cultural shifts regarding sexual orientation
Jim Crow laws were upheld by the Supreme Court for how long?
60
What city did the Kerry presidential campaign volunteers who traveled to Ohio come from?
Boston
In this video, Kerry presidential campaign volunteers are seen performing which of the following tasks in Toledo?
making campaign signs, conducting literature drops, and phone banking to get out the vote on Election Day
How are telephone banks used by the Kerry presidential campaign in this video?
Phone banks are used by the Kerry campaign to remind likely Kerry voters to go to the polls on Election Day.
What is election protection?
Training campaign volunteers to monitor polling places to be sure that all qualified voters are allowed to vote.
Whose presence and words provided an extra boost of motivation to the campaign volunteers?
Elizabeth Edwards, spouse of Senator Edwards
How many votes was Kerry short of winning the state of Ohio?
118,000
Why do intermittent voters have the greatest impact on elections?
Whether or not they actually go to the polls can determine the outcome of an election.
What explanations discussed in the study account for the voting behavior of intermittent voters?
Intermittent voters are bored with AND uninformed about politics
What differences help to explain the voting patterns of regular voters and intermittent voters?
Intermittent voters are more mistrustful of people, less angry with government, and less likely to be married than regular voters
how many people vote
35 percent
Intermittent voters constitute what percentage of the eligible voting population?
20
Which two critical characteristics are shared by both intermittent voters and regular voters?
Both groups feel guilty if they don’t vote and are less likely to agree with the statement “voting doesn’t really change anything” than those who don’t vote.
According to the survey, what is the main issue that distinguishes Republican-oriented voters from Democratic-oriented voters?
foreign policy assertiveness
What names does the survey give to the three groups that represent the political middle?
Upbeats, Disaffecteds, and Bystanders
Which of the following issues did the survey find to be among the most divisive for the GOP?
the role of government
What group constitutes the largest voting bloc in the survey’s typology?
liberals
Which of the following political figures had the broadest appeal among the main independent groups surveyed?
George bush
Which of the following political systems comes closest to that of a true democracy?
ancient Greece
Which of the following would be considered a form of conventional political participation?
voting
The civil rights movement used which of the following?
A. unconventional forms of political participation
• B. sit-ins
• C. Freedom Rides
• D. marches
Which of the following resulted in legislative policy change?
civil rights activism
In which of the following forms of protest would Americans be most likely to participate?
signing petitions
In which of the following would Americans be LEAST likely to participate?
working for a party or candidate
When might people be less likely to participate in the political process?
A. when they have limited time to participate
• B. when they lack resources
• C. when they have no interest in participation
• D. when they have no one to recruit them
What percentage of Americans typically talk to others about their choice of candidates in upcoming elections?
50
Which of the following considerations tend to diminish differences in voter turnout due to race?
socioeconomic factors
Which group reported the lowest voter registration and turnout in 2008?
asians
Younger voters are more likely to take part in which of the following?
protests
What can influence the party identifications held by Americans?
A. parents
• B. schools
• C. churches
• D. synagogues
Which of the following is an accurate statement about the strength of partisan loyalty?
Only major events or issues cause voters to reevaluate their partisan loyalties.
In 2010, what percentage of voters identified themselves as pure independents?
16
In prospective voting, which of the following would MOST likely be taken into consideration?
campaign promises
What probably hurt Senator John Kerry’s election chances the MOST in the 2004 presidential race?
his reputation as a flip-flopper
Why did the McCain campaign select Sarah Palin as the Republican vice-presidential candidate in 2008?
A. to appeal to more voters
• B. to balance the ticket
• C. to represent a “Washington outsider”
• D. to reach out to female voters
• E. all of these options
According to the text, what personal characteristics of presidents like Ronald Reagan and John F. Kennedy helped them to connect with American voters?
both their speechmaking abilities AND their leadership qualities
What does the Consumer Confidence Index use to predict presidential election results?
voters’ views on the economy
Voter support for incumbents is strongly related to which of the following?
financial security
Which of the following BEST describes voter turnout trends since the 1960s?
There has been decreased turnout in both presidential and congressional elections
According to political scientist Robert Putnam, how did the political environment of the 1950s and 1960s differ from that of the present?
Social capital and civic engagement were higher than they are today.
Distrust in government likely resulted from which of the following?
A. the civil rights movement
• B. Watergate
• C. the Vietnam War
• D. the social and cultural turmoil of the 1960s and ’70s
Which of the following countries had the lowest voter turnout between 1960 and 2000?
us
In what ways is the United States attempting to make it easier for people to participate in elections?
offering convenience voting
The National Voter Registration Act does which of the following?
lets citizens register to vote when applying for a driver’s license
In which of the following ways does the electoral system in the U.S. affect voter turnout?
both ballot length AND frequency of participation
Single-member districts contribute to which of the following?
. voters’ resistance to “wasting” votes
What might supporters of mandatory voting argue?
Voting is a civic duty.
Which of the following might be considered a disadvantage of mandatory voting?
Uninformed voters could skew election results.
Which of the following is NOT included among the party organizations associated with the Democratic National Committee?
the Democratic Presidential Nominating Committee
How is the Republican Party structured at the state and local levels?
independent groups comprised of voters and delegates
Which of the following is NOT a typical resource provided to candidates for office by the national committees of each party?
campaign staff management
The 50-State Strategy called for the Democrats to focus their efforts in what parts of the country?
traditionally conservative areas
Which of the following is NOT included among the ways for Republicans to get involved through the RNC website?
hosting rallies
What is Charlie Stuart’s political affiliation?
Democratic
Which of the following does Charlie Stuart NOT include among the roles he has assumed during the course of the campaign?
volunteer coordinator
What seems to be the main focus of the campaign workers featured in the videos?
raising money
How much money does Charlie Stuart hope to raise?
$1.5 million
Who is Alan Grayson?
a wealthy lawyer opposing Stuart in the Democratic primary
According to Charlie Stuart, why does Grayson pose such a threat to his campaign?
He is independently wealthy and can buy name recognition
How does Charlie Stuart respond to Alan Grayson entering the race?
He calls donors and asks for more money.
According to George Getz, a major difference between the Libertarian party and the Republican and Democratic parties is that the Libertarian party favors:
limited government and less government intrusiveness
Based on the interviews with Dan Geldon and Christine Iverson, which of the following is MOST true about political parties:
parties work year round at the local, state, and federal levels
According to Max Haney, which of the following is NOT his job as Chair of the Buncombe County Democratic Party?
supporting one democratic candidate over another in a primary election
Based on the answers of all the people interviewed, what is the BEST definition of a political party?
People who share the same political goals and values who organize to elect candidates to political office
If you want to get more involved in the political party process, you can:
A. volunteer with a local campaign
• B. write a letter to the editor on behalf of a party candidate or preferred policy position
• C. register to vote as a member of a political party
• D. exercise your right to vote in a political party’s primary or caucus
What is a party platform?
a document exemplifying the core principles, values, and policy positions of a political party
Where are party platforms approved? (Hint: Take a close look at the first page of the Democratic platform.)
. national party conventions
Which of the following values is NOT mentioned in the preamble to the Republican Party Platform?
innovation to boost American competitiveness
Which of the following beliefs is NOT mentioned in the preamble to the Democratic Party Platform?
The Iraq War was necessary
Where are party platforms approved?
national party conventions
Skimming the table of contents for both party platforms, which of the following is NOT a topic addressed by both Democrats and Republicans?
expanding our national parks
Which of the following beliefs is NOT mentioned in the preamble to the Republican platform?
American diversity is the key to future success.
Which of the following beliefs is NOT mentioned in the introduction to the 2012 Democratic platform?
Lower taxes for businesses will result in lower unemployment.
Looking at “Party Platform 1”, what are three of the most common words? (Words repeated frequently appear larger.)
America, middle, country
Looking at “Party Platform 2,” what are three of the most common words? (Words repeated frequently appear larger.)
America, opportunity, government
Which of the following words is a common word in both wordles? (Words repeated frequently appear larger.)
dream
A party manifesto refers to which of the following?
A. the party’s position on policy issues
• B. policy goals for the party
• C. actions the party proposes to take
• D. the party platform
The RNC is which of the following?
a national-level party organization
How might the national committee chair try to get state and local committees to adopt policy positions?
by threatening to withhold funding
Party workers are responsible for which of the following tasks?
A. raising money
• B. recruiting candidates
• C. researching the opposition
• D. encouraging voters to vote
The Pendleton Civil Service Reform Act of 1888 established limitations on which of the following?
patronage
The Pendleton Act stipulated that public employees be hired according to what criteria?
merit
Since the 1950s, Republicans and Democrats have become which of the following?
more polarized
Which of the following represents a notable instance of party members working across party lines?
Southern Democrats voting to oppose healthcare reform
How might the party in government try to enact the party agenda?
A. by building coalitions
• B. by appointing party members to the executive cabinet
• C. by coordinating executive and legislative actions
• D. by making certain committee assignments
The party in the electorate refers to which of the following
citizens who identify with the party
The power of which of the following appears to be increasing?
the party in government
Party activists may be described as which of the following?
contributors of resources
The responsible party government model suggests all of the following EXCEPT:
The winning party may change its programs once elected.
What action did the Blue Dog Democrats take with regard to health care reform?
They defied party leadership.
The “Contract from America” succeeded in doing which of the following?
securing the House of Representatives for the Republicans
What function do minor parties serve in the political system?
They spotlight issues ignored by the major parties.
The electoral system in the United States is characterized by which of the following?
both single-member districts AND a plurality election rule
Which of the following explains the reasons for the two-party system in the U.S.?
Duverger’s Law
Which of the following would be considered an advantage of a two-party system?
a guaranteed legislative majority
Who participated in the vote to elect Nancy Pelosi Speaker of the House in 2007?
both Democratic AND Republican representatives in the House
In his farewell address, George Washington outlined his views on which of the following?
the spirit of party as an aspect of human nature
The Democratic-Republican Party was most closely aligned with which of the following?
the anti-Federalists
Which two are considered the fathers of American political parties?
Thomas Jefferson and Alexander Hamilton
Why was the Monroe administration known as the Era of Good Feelings?
Electoral politics were dominated by the Democratic-Republicans
Why was the tie in the electoral college in 1800 significant?
It was between two Democratic-Republican candidates.
What issue caused a fatal rift in the Whig Party?
expansion of slavery
The political party formed by Andrew Jackson is the ancestor of which of the following?
the modern Democratic Party
An event in which groups of voters switch party loyalty is known as what?
a critical election
Who became the first Republican president?
lincoln
What does the “Solid South” refer to?
Democratic Party dominance in Southern states following the Civil War
The election of 1860 divided the country between which of the following?
Northern and Southern states
The era of Republican Party dominance focused on which of the following issues?
women’s suffrage
The era of Republican Party dominance is also known as what?
. the Progressive Era
The goals of the Progressive Party centered on which of the following?
A. women’s suffrage
• B. environmental conservation
• C. anti-trust laws
• D. increasing popular participation
Which event ended the era of Republican Party dominance?
the stock market crash of 1929
How did President Franklin Roosevelt respond to the economic situation of the 1930s?
A. with legislation to improve working conditions
• B. with public works projects
• C. with the New Deal
• D. with infrastructure development
The 1960 presidential debate led to which of the following?
. elevation of candidate characteristics over partisan affiliation
E. all of these options.

What engendered the political uncertainty of the 1970s and 1980s?

A. the Watergate scandal
• B. the Vietnam War
• C. the realignment of the South
• D. President Nixon’s resignation
In which of Florida’s districts is Charlie Stuart running for Congress?• A. the Fourth
• B. the Fifth
In which of Florida’s districts is Charlie Stuart running for Congress?• A. the Fourth
• B. the Fifth
In which of Florida’s districts is Charlie Stuart running for Congress?
. the Eighth
What areas of the district is Stuart’s campaign team focusing on?
precincts with a high Democratic turnout in 2004
Which of the following is NOT included among the reasons given by Al, the assistant campaign manager, for why the Stuart campaign didn’t engage in a “sign war”?
The average voter doesn’t usually pay attention to campaign signs.
By the time of Charlie Stuart’s interview on television, how much of the vote has he received?
48
If he had to run all over again, what does Charlie Stuart say he would have done differently?
He would have hired a campaign manager like Roland in the beginning
What setback did Stuart’s campaign suffer after winning the primary?
Stuart did not receive the support of the national Democratic Party.
According to Roland, what demographic has Joy failed to reach?
the Hispanic community
What strategy does the campaign turn to on the final day of the race?
the Hispanic community
What strategy does the campaign turn to on the final day of the race?
a call center
How are electors for the electoral college chosen?
They are chosen by the political parties in each state.
What is Elizabeth Maroni’s professional job?
. Massachusetts State Senator Pam Resor’s chief of staff
Which of the following statements about the electoral college is true?
It is the constitutionally mandated body that elects the president.
How many electoral votes does Massachusetts have in the electoral college?
12
Click here to read some basic information about the electoral college. How many electors constitute the electoral college, and how many electors does a presidential candidate need to win an election?
538 and 270, respectively
Daisy Girl seeks to associate President Lyndon B. Johnson’s opponent, Senator Barry Goldwater, with
the threat of nuclear war.
The Daisy Girl ad was intended to make President Johnson appear
both moderate AND careful.
What does the bear represent in President Ronald Reagan’s campaign ad?
the Soviet Union
What is the underlying theme of the Wolves advertisement broadcast during the 2004 presidential campaign?
both the threat of terrorism AND Kerry’s stance on security
According to the Willie Horton commercial, what is Governor Dukakis’ approach to crime?
He opposes capital punishment AND supports weekend passes for prisoners.
The Laughter ad takes aim at
Spiro Agnew.
What decision by the George H.W. Bush campaign does Crazy question?
selecting Dan Quayle as vice president
The Scary advertisement claims that George H.W. Bush is using which of the following strategies to campaign against Bill Clinton?
scare tactics
In Hopeful, Bush uses which words to describe his campaign?
. hopeful, optimistic, AND very positive
Gore’s commercial, Accountability, deals with which of the following issues?
education
What message is Original Mavericks seeking to convey about John McCain and his running mate, Sarah Palin?
Both have a proven record of bucking the status quo and will bring change to Washington.
What is Something seeking to say about Barack Obama’s campaign for the presidency?
The ad is emphasizing Obama’s broad support and his ability to bring unity to the nation.
Which of the following is a method of choosing a presidential nominee?
the caucus system
The Founders designed the electoral process to do which of the following?
ensure that the government has political legitimacy
How often does the Constitution require elections to be held?
two years
How may a congressional candidate qualify for the state ballot?
by gathering enough petition signatures to run autonomously of a party
What distinguishes a closed primary system from an open primary system?
. In a closed primary, voters may only vote on the ballot for the party with which they are registered.
What is the first step in winning the presidency?
winning the most party delegates from around the United States to support your nomination
How are delegates selected to participate in the parties’ national conventions?
through both primary elections AND caucuses
What is the primary goal of frontloading in the electoral process?
exerting more influence over the selection of party presidential nominees
How many states held nominating elections on “Super Tuesday” in 2008?
21
The electoral college was established in which of the following?
Article II, section 1 of the Constitution
What determines the number of electors each state receives?
the number of U.S. senators and representatives from the state
Which of the following is considered an advantage of using the electoral college system to select the president?
It preserves federalism as the Founders envisioned it.
How many electoral college votes must a candidate secure in order to win the presidency?
at least 270
Battleground states in the 2008 presidential election included which of the following?
both Florida AND North Carolina
Which of the following would be considered a basic campaign strategy?
an issue-oriented strategy
party-centered strategy would be more useful in which of the following?
the general election
What did former House Speaker Tip O’Neill claim was the key to carrying out a successful campaign strategy?
money
Campaign financing for federal elections is currently regulated by which of the following?
the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act
Which of the following currently pertains to the use of “soft money” in campaigns?
The BCRA banned unregulated soft money donations to political parties.
Candidates use war chests to do which of the following? Choose the BEST answer.
pay for advertising
Which of the following would be considered an especially effective way of reaching voters during political campaigns?
A. email
• B. Internet advertising
• C. campaign websites
• D. Facebook
Which of the following represents the largest source of funding for the Obama campaign in 2008?
individual donations
Electoral reforms of the late 19th century did which of the following?
lessened party control over ballot design
Which of the following contributed to the shift to candidate-centered campaigns?
A. technological advancements
• B. ballot reform
• C. introduction of televisions
• D. political consultants
Which of the following accurately describes the role of modern parties in political campaigns?
Parties exercise less control over electoral politics than in the past.
Tracy works for AAUW, a group that advocates in which of the following policy areas?
education
How does Tracy make new contacts on the Hill?
She calls or emails them to set up a meeting.
Tracy finds it unfortunate that “lobbyist” has become a bad word. What is the primary function of lobbyists, according to Tracy?
to educate congressional staff
What kind of work did Huck do before finally getting his current job as a lobbyist?
intern
What is the influence of campaign donations on members of Congress, according to Huck?
Campaign donations can buy access to members of Congress
Tom works in both New York and DC. In his Washington role, what industry does he represent?
the health care industry
Tom suggests that there are two types of lobbyists: those who open doors and those who know substance. Which type of lobbyist does he think he is?
a policy expert
When Tom describes his work with the manufacturer of a disposable diabetes pump, what is the reason that Medicare will not include these pumps as covered equipment?
There is a statute that prohibits coverage of disposable medical equipment
Why does Tom think that lobbyists are necessary?
People need advocates.
• B. People have a right to petition the government.
• C. People need help understanding how our government works.
Which of the following best describes Sandra Froman?
A. female
• B. middle-aged
• C. lawyer
• D. Stanford grad
Why is Froman a gun owner?
attempted break in
Which of the following best describes Sandra Froman’s leadership style as president of the NRA?
She uses both practical and logical arguments AND she avoids slogans and mantras.
She uses both practical and logical arguments AND she avoids slogans and mantras.
the Second Amendment
Froman says that gun laws are often a stand-in for
addressing social problems that underlie criminal activity.
According to the NRA Facebook page, about how many people belong to the NRA?
4 million
What are the three incentives at the heart of lobbying?
to do well, to do good, and to have fun
What does Loomis say many lobbyists crave?
legitimacy
Which of the following is NOT a typical stereotype of lobbyists and interest groups?
They are working for positive change
What are the three “freedoms” that Loomis quotes to illustrate that lobbying is protected by the Constitution?
freedom of speech, freedom of association, freedom of petition
Interest groups are organized around which of the following?
sets of issues
If the Democrats and the Republicans are the opposing teams (metaphorically speaking), interest groups are which of the following?
. the fans
Interest groups resemble all of the following EXCEPT:
. congressional caucuses
Groups concerned with private interests may include which of the following?
. labor associations
Which of the following would be an example of a public interest group?
the NAACP
Which of the following interest groups fought to keep health care reform legislation alive?
the AFL-CIO
Which of the following would be considered the PRIMARY means by which interest groups attempt to influence policy directly?• A. lobbying
lobbying
According to the text, what is the primary function of lobbyists
providing current information to lawmakers
Effective lobbying results in which of the following? Choose the BEST answer.
mutually beneficial relationships
How do lobbyists influence the judicial process?
A. by filing amicus curiae briefs
• B. by maintaining legal defense funds
• C. by providing information to the Supreme Court
• D. by pressuring Congress over judicial appointments
How might lobbyists influence Senate consideration of presidential nominations to the Supreme Court?
by providing background information on the nominees
How does lobbyists’ scorekeeping help voters?
It helps them establish which candidates align with them on particular issues.
What are 527 organizations allowed to do?
participate in issue advocacy
Interest group money generally does which of the following?
backs ideologically aligned candidates
Grassroots lobbying includes all of the following EXCEPT:
sending advocates to Washington
Interest groups that observe and report on governmental activities are known as what?
watchdogs
Approximately how many lobbyists are currently registered in Washington, DC?
30000
According to the text, what is the main obstacle preventing the formation of interest groups?
overcoming the collective action problem
Interest groups would not exist if every person based their political decisions on which of the following
the ease of free riding
Solidary benefits of joining an interest group would include which of the following?
networking
Which of the following does the Automobile Association of America provide to its members?
material benefits
How can an interest group address the problem of free-riding?
A. by requiring membership
• B. by providing benefits to members
• C. by establishing a sense of community
• D. by offering selective benefits to members
In which of the following scenarios would an interest group be most likely to form?
. when the government threatens to limit corporate tax breaks
Which of the following BEST describes Cesar Chavez?
an interest group entrepreneur
What percentage of today’s lobbyists represent private interests?
90
Which of the following organizations spent the most on lobbying between 1998 and 2009?
the U.S. Chamber of Commerce
Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between economic class and interest groups?
Blue-collar workers and those with lower education levels are less likely to belong to interest groups.
What does James Madison identify as the most prevalent cause of interest groups (or “factions”)?
the unequal distribution of property
Which of the following would be considered a disadvantage of having interest groups in society
Interest groups overemphasize minority interests.
Close relationships between interest groups and lawmakers would likely result in which of the following?
less governmental transparency
Jon Stewart begins his interview with Senator Obama by describing the studio audience as
very excited
Which of the following BEST describes the questions Stewart asks Obama?
friendly and funny
Which of the following BEST describes the questions Brian Williams asks Senator Obama?
serious and thoughtful
Which of the following BEST describes key differences between the two interviews?
Stewart’s entertainment interview is both more casual AND more biased than Williams’ news interview.
What is the estimated total value of the damage and losses caused by the January 12 earthquake in Haiti?
What was the annual per capita income in Haiti prior to the earthquake?
660
Solnit suggests that mass media outlets abuse certain words in crisis situations and actually make these situations worse. What are the two specific words she identifies
looting” and “panic”
What alternative caption does Solnit suggest for the image of the crowd in the rubble labeled “looters” by the Los Angeles Times?
“Resourceful survivors salvage the means of sustaining life from the ruins of their world.”
Which of the following is NOT one of the four overarching principles of the SPJ’s code of ethics?
Remain Objective
What was Sean Hannity’s criticism of President Obama’s speech in Cairo?
Hannity claims Obama gave terrorists a sympathetic treatment.
Stewart claims that Fox is guilty of
insinuation.
Stewart claims that MSNBC is guilty of
misrepresentation.
Stewart claims that CNN is guilty of
desperation.
To whom does President George H.W. Bush compare Governor Bill Clinton, his opponent, when he says Clinton changes his position on policy issues?
Elvis Presley
The “spot” being created here has to do with
economic policy
According to President George H.W. Bush, which of the following was the lowest in 20 years?
interest rates
What phrase does James Carville want included in the spot?
Read my lips!
Which of the following would be considered the “mass media” in today’s society?
A. television
• B. newspapers
• C. radio
• D. the Internet
What differentiates new media from other sources?
It is interactive.
Which group of Americans is most likely to access news on a given day?
over 65
Which of the following is true of print media?
The print media provides more detailed stories about politics and government.
According to a 2008 poll, approximately what percentage of Americans reported that they read a newspaper the day before?
35
The Penny Press allowed citizens to do which of the following?
. access affordable news
When did radio transform mass media?
1920
When did Americans first encounter dramatic visual images of military conflict
vietnam
Which of the following has the highest percentage of Democrats in its audience?
cnn
Comparatively, which of the following groups is more likely to go online for news?
younger people
Which of the following tactics did Barack Obama utilize in his 2008 presidential campaign?
A. targeting younger voters
• B. text messages
• C. the Internet
• D. gaming platforms
Which of the following applies to the system of media coverage in the United States?
Media outlets may cover whatever they choose.
According to the text, what is the primary goal of privately owned media sources?
profitability
In which of the following countries would we consider the press to be highly regulated?
china
What must an individual do in order to prove libel?
show that the media heedlessly disregarded the truth
Which of the following would be considered the most critical standard of journalistic professionalism?
creditibility
According to the Society of Professional Journalists, with which of the following behaviors should the news industry be concerned?
A. independent action
• B. accountability
• C. reporting the truth
• D. thoroughness
Freedom of the press in the United States comes from which of the following?
A. the Virginia Declaration of Rights
• B. the First Amendment
• C. the Founders
• D. state constitutions
What was the first newspaper to be continuously published in the United States?
the Boston Newsletter
The Federalist Papers reflected which of the following developments?
the growing influence of political parties
Yellow journalism might include which of the following?
fabricated news stories
The Society of Professional Journalists formed in response to which of the following?
. the practice of muckraking
• B. the Progressive Era
• C. sensationalism in the media
• D. public dissatisfaction with the political climate
Calls for journalistic reform led to which of the following?
the establishment of journalism schools
The addition of independent editors to the newspaper industry allowed for more stories based on which of the following?
quality
What ushered in the era of watchdog journalism
watergate
The actions of Bob Woodward and Carl Bernstein led to which of the following?
A. public outrage
• B. the making of All the President’s Men
• C. the establishment of investigative units by media outlets
• D. greater scrutiny of White House activity
How have political candidates reacted to the growing popularity of infotainment?
. by making appearances on infotainment programs
Which of the following could be considered an advantage of infotainment?
It attracts audiences who otherwise wouldn’t follow politics.
Which of the following play an important role in agenda setting?
A. governors
• B. the news media
• C. presidents
• D. mayors
What happened when newspaper coverage of health care reform declined?
. Fewer people viewed it as the most important issue facing the country.
What is priming?
press coverage of an issue influencing the way people think about related issues
On which issue did the media prime the public in the run-up to the 2004 presidential election?
national security
How might the media “frame” the issue of budget cuts?
by choosing certain words to refer to the budget cuts
If a reporter intended to frame gay marriage in a positive light, how might she do so?
discuss the issue as a matter of civil rights
Individuals with more political knowledge are considered to be which of the following?
less likely to accept media messages that contradict their ideology
Persuasion works best when _____________________.
individuals lack knowledge of the subject
According to the text, which of the following affects the persuasiveness of the message?
the credibility of the source
What does the public expect from the media during an election season
A. information about government
• B. information about policy platforms
• C. information about candidates
• D. information about political parties
Which of the following media outlets particularly focuses on its role as an educator?
pbs
Which of the following might be considered a media watchdog?
a member of the White House Press Corps
What did Thomas Jefferson believe about the media?
The media should hold the government accountable
The Obama campaign utilized which of the following platforms for advertising?
A. search engines
• B. infomercials
• C. social networking sites
• D. news websites
Which of the following would be considered “free media”?
press coverage
Who was the first presidential candidate to take advantage of the power of new media during a campaign?
dean
Which of the following is potentially responsible for the “trench-warfare mentality” that characterizes Washington politics?
the lax journalistic standards of new media outlets
Which of the following would be considered an advantage of the rise of new media?
It provides greater access to information.
Which of the following would be considered a negative result of the rise of new media?
A. increased attention to rumors
• B. increased political polarization
• C. frequent criticism of the mainstream media
• D. exclusion of the poor and the elderly