PSYC. Practice Test 1: Abraham Maslow’s and Carl Rogers’s Theories, Danger of Barbiturates

PSYC 2301 Practice Test 1
Study these questions. The correct answers are marked with an asterisk (*).
*d. “Would Martin Luther King, Jr. have been a good president?”
1. Which of the following is NOT an empirical question?
2. A correlation coefficient shows that alcohol consumption and driving accidents are indeed related. As a result, a researcher could predict ________ if the direction of the relationship is known.
*b. the number of driving accidents a person has will go up or down based on the number of alcoholic drinks consumed
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3. Vido has a master’s degree and is interested in working on the causes of poverty. What type of professional is Vido most likely to become?
*d. psychiatric social worker
4. While Margaret Floy Washburn may have been the first woman to receive a Ph.D. in psychology in the United States (in 1894), the first African-American woman to do so was ________ in 1934 at the University of Minnesota.
*b. Ruth Howard
5. Humanist Abraham Maslow suggests that when people reach self-actualization, they:
*a. develop to their fullest potential.
6. A good control group ________.
*d. holds constant all variables in the experiment 2
7. Shorey (2001) found that the brutal death of a Somolian prisoner in a Canadian military facility could have been prevented. One reason the beating was not stopped was the ________.
*a. bystander effect
8. Professor Beverly approaches questions about human behavior from a perspective that emphasizes bodily events and chemicals, such as hormones, associated with behavior. It is most likely that she accepts which of the following psychological approaches?
*a. biopsychological
9. Systematically collecting data in real-world environments is the essence of which descriptive research method?
*b. naturalistic observation
10. A case study would be the most appropriate method to investigate which of these topics?
*b. the development of a male baby raised as a female after a surgical error destroyed his penis
11. Testing a hypothesis is the third step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from which goal of psychology?
*b. explaining
12. Which of the following is CORRECT concerning random assignment?
*a. In random assignment, each participant has an equal chance for each condition.
13. The structuralists were important in the history of psychology because they:
*a. examined consciousness and the structure of mental processes. 3
14. Which of the following questions could be answered best by using the survey method?
*c. Do students prefer a grading system with or without pluses and minuses?
15. Sandi believes that people who eat at McDonald’s are overweight, so she decides to do a naturalistic observation of people who eat at McDonald’s. What should most concern us about Sandi’s observations?
*c. observer bias
16. A correlation coefficient represents two things: ________ and ________.
*b. strength; direction of the relationship
17. Ken is planning on studying the influence of intelligence on the ability to recall events from the 1960s. If Ken does not account for variables such as age, which could also influence one’s ability to recall these events, age could be considered a(n) ________.
*c. confounding variable
18. The question “When will it happen again?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology?
*c. prediction
19. In studying the bystander effect, a researcher is interested in looking at differences between prison guards in China and the United Kingdom. The researcher is taking a ________ perspective in this cross-cultural study.
*d. sociocultural
20. Which of these is the most accurate definition of the discipline of psychology?
*c. the scientific study of behavior and mental processes
21. If you are interested in how patterns, beliefs, and customs influence behavior, you are interested in the ________ perspective.
*b. sociocultural
22. The belief that the unconscious mind has an influence on one’s behavior is part of what early field of psychology?
*c. psychoanalysis
23. When you watch dogs play in the park, or watch how your professors conduct their classes, you are engaging in a form of ________.
*b. naturalistic observation
24. Dr. Wiseman wants to know about the alcohol consumption patterns among college juniors in the United States. He should ________.
*d. draw a representative sample among college juniors
25. In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the dependent variable is ________.
*c. the number of collisions
26. Each of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association EXCEPT ________.
*b. participants cannot be deceived or have information concealed from them at any time during an experiment
27. A psychologist is interested in finding out why identical twins have different personalities. This psychologist is most interested in the goal of ________.
*b. explanation
28. Which topic would NOT be investigated by a psychologist if the definition of psychology were limited to “the science of behavior”?
*b. thought processes students used while trying to answer this question
29. Which pair of scientists shared the most similar views of behavior?
*c. Ivan Pavlov and John B. Watson
30. The class is playing a game of Jeopardy! and it is your turn. “I’ll take Specialties in Psychology for $300.” The revealed answer is, “These psychological professionals work with situations in which environmental conditions may have an impact on mental health.” Just before the buzzer sounds, what will you say?
*c. “What is a psychiatric social worker?”
31. Mei was sent to the school psychologist to be tested. Based on her IQ scores, it was decided that she would do well in the gifted child program. This is an example of which goal of psychology?
*c. predicting behavior
32. Perceiving the question is the first step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from which goal of psychology?
*a. describing
33. A perfect correlation, whether positive or negative, is _____________ in the real world.
*d. rare
34. A researcher stops people at the mall and asks them questions about their attitudes toward gun control. Which research technique is being used?
*a. survey
35. The magazine Desperate Wives publishes a survey of its female readers called “The Sex Life of the American Wife.” It reports that 87 percent of all wives like to make love in rubber boots. The critical flaw in this research would be _________.
*a. the fact that the sample is not representative of American wives
36. Which psychologist was the first African-American to receive a Ph.D. in educational psychology from the University of Chicago in 1925?
*a. Charles Henry Thompson
37. The school of behaviorism attempted to explain behavior by studying:
*c. how a specific stimulus evokes a specific response.
38. According to present research on psychologists, thirty-four percent are in the ________ subfield of psychology.
*d. clinical
39. In the definition of psychology, the term mental processes refers to ________.
*a. internal, covert activities
40. In the early part of the past century, psychologists who broke down thought processes into their basic elements and analyzed them were called structuralists. What term might we use to describe psychologists with similar interests today?
*b. cognitive
41. Which of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association?
*b. Participants must be allowed to make an informed decision.
42. Which of the following is an empirical question?
*d. “Is there life on other planets?”
43. A group of randomly selected subjects for a study that matches the population on important characteristics such as age and sex is called ________.
*b. a representative sample
44. A researcher is investigating the effects of exercise on weight. What are the independent and dependent variables in this experiment?
*a. The dependent variable is weight; the independent variable is exercise.
45. Several years ago, two scientists announced that they had evidence of “cold fusion” in the laboratory, but further studies failed to replicate their findings, and it was later found that the original scientists had used sloppy methods. This highlights which of the following critical thinking principles?
*b. All evidence is not equal in quality.
46. A correlation coefficient shows that smoking and life expectancy are indeed related. As a result, a researcher could predict that ________ if the direction of the relationship is known.
*b. the person’s life expectancy will go up or down based on the number of cigarettes the person smokes daily
47. Freud said phobias were ________ whereas Watson said phobias were ________.
*b. repressed conflicts; learned
48. Double-blind studies control for ________.
*c. both the placebo effect and the experimenter effect
49. The emerging field of brain imagery in cognitive neuroscience has developed methods, such as MRI, to examine ________.
*a. images of the living brain
50. A negative correlation means that ________.
*a. high values of one variable are associated with low values of the other
51. Freud stressed the importance of ________.
*a. early childhood experiences
52. You overhear psychology students preparing for a test. They note that one of the research methods often “fails to generalize.” Which method is the MOST likely topic of their discussion?
*b. case study
53. Which founding contributors to psychology helped develop behaviorism?
*c. Watson and Pavlov
54. Adaris has always been drawn to the saying “Absence makes the heart grow fonder,” and she decides to incorporate this saying into her research project. Adaris is trying to define absence in a way that can be empirically tested. She is attempting to find an appropriate ________.
*b. operational definition
55. Marcy is trying to define anxiety in a way that can be empirically tested. She is attempting to find an appropriate ________.
*b. operational definition
56. Which of the following statements is correct concerning correlation coefficients?
*b. A correlation of +.89 and -.89 are both strong and equally so.
57. The majority of psychologists work in ________.
*d. four-year colleges and universities
58. The placebo effect means ________.
*c. the expectations of the participants influence their behavior
59. In the 1970s, a 13-year-old girl was found locked up in a room, strapped to a potty chair. Since she had grown up in a world without human speech, researchers studied “Genie’s” ability to acquire words, grammar, and pronunciation. This type of research is called a ________.
*a. case study
60. Which perspective focuses on free will and self-actualization?
*b. humanism
61. What is the best analogy for Wundt’s and Titchener’s mission for psychology?
*a. a chart listing the basic chemical elements
62. Participants in research early in psychology’s history might have been asked to view a chair and describe its color, shape, and texture and other aspects of their conscious experience. These individuals would have been using a method called ________.
*b. objective introspection
63. The question “What is happening?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology?
*a. description
64. While on a visit to a large city, you observe several billboards in which a series of lights seems to move. Which perspective in psychology would most likely help you understand this phenomenon?
*a. Gestalt
65. The word correlation is often used as a synonym for ________.
*d. relationship
66. The question “Why is it happening?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology?
*b. explanation
67. On a television talk show, an actor describes the symptoms of anxiety he has been experiencing. He reports that the severity of the symptoms has decreased since he has been taking a drug prescribed by his therapist back in Hollywood. You conclude that the actor’s therapist is probably a ________.
*b. psychiatrist
68. As part of a psychology experiment, Brett decides to measure a person’s “anxiety” by noting the number of blinks a person makes in a twenty minute social interaction with a stranger. Brett appears to have offered a(n) ________ of anxiety.
*b. operational definition
69. Julie finds that the number of hours she sleeps each night is related to the scores she receives on quizzes the next day. As her sleep approaches 8 hours, her quiz scores improve; as her sleep drops to
5 hours, her quiz scores show a similar decline. Julie realizes that ________.
*b. there is a positive correlation between the number of hours she sleeps and her quiz grades
70. The first step in any scientific investigation is ________.
*b. perceiving the question
71. Which research method involves watching behaviors as they occur without intervening or altering the behaviors in any way?
*d. naturalistic observation
72. Dr. Braunz has been treating a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. She decides to write a prescription for Ritalin. Given this information, it is most likely that Dr. Braunz is a ________.
*a. psychiatrist
73. You attend a lecture by a psychologist who uses terms such as free will and self-actualization. Which psychological perspective is most consistent with the points the psychologist presented?
*b. humanism
74. In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the independent variable is ________.
*a. the use of nicotine
75. Critical thinking means making judgments based on ________.
*c. reason and logical evaluation
76. The work of Freud was built around ________.
*b. a theory of personality that emphasizes unconscious motives and conflicts
77. Roger went to McDonald’s to observe people eating in fast-food restaurants. He brought a camera crew and bright lights, and they all wore yellow jump suits. Roger said he wanted to do a naturalistic observation but may have had some problems because of ________.
*b. observer effects
78. The steps or procedures an experimenter must use to control or measure the variables in a study is called the ________.
*b. operational definition
79. Which of the following statements is correct?
*a. A psychologist has no medical training.
80. Wesleyan University researchers Jameson and colleagues conducted a study to explore the negative stereotypes of collegiate athletes as “dumb jocks.” In their study, the researchers found ________.
*b. negative stereotypes in higher education may contribute to collegiate student athletes underperforming in academics
81. Which of the following statements is true about naturalistic observation?
*b. It involves observing behavior in its natural context.
82. A correlation coefficient is represented by the symbol ________.
*d. small letter “r”
83. Which correlation coefficient is most likely to describe the relationship between brushing one’s teeth and the number of cavities one gets?
*a. -.62
84. The question “How can it be changed?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology?
*d. control
85. Two groups of graduate students were given rats and were told to teach them how to run mazes. Group 1 was told that they had “very smart” rats that should learn quickly. Group 2 was told that they had “very stupid” rats that should learn slowly. In actuality, neither group was any different, and the rats were randomly assigned. In spite of that, when the experiment concluded, Group 1 rats had learned the maze much more quickly. How can that be explained?
*a. experimenter effect
86. The action potential causes neurotransmitters to be released into the ________.
*c. synapse
87. Electroencephalograph is to electroencephalogram as ________.
*b. machine is to tracing
88. The brain is divided into several different structures on the bottom part of the brain referred to as the “hindbrain.” Which of the parts of the brain listed below is NOT located in the hindbrain?
*d. thalamus
89. A specialized cell that makes up the nervous system that receives and sends messages within that system is called a ________.
*b. neuron
90. Since Jessica suffered a head injury in a car accident 3 months ago, she has not experienced dreams as she had in the past. She used to dream vivid, active dreams. Which part of her brain was most likely affected during the car accident, which is related to her problem dreaming?
*a. pons
91. The part of the occipital lobe that is responsible for receiving visual information from the eyes is called the ________.
*a. primary visual cortex
92. ________ plays a critical role as a neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscles to contract.
*a. Acetylcholine
93. Sara has been experiencing a serious memory problem. An interdisciplinary team has ruled out a range of causes and believes that a neurotransmitter is involved. Which neurotransmitter is most likely involved in this problem?
*d. acetylcholine
94. Adironke has recently been diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Her psychiatrist tells her that there are several different brain areas that might contribute to her various symptoms. Which of the following would the psychiatrist be unlikely to name as an involved brain structure?
*c. the striate nucleus
95. The ________, located on the top of the kidneys, secrete(s) hormones that regulate salt intake, control stress reactions, and provide a secondary source of sex hormones affecting the sexual changes that occur during adolescence.
*a. adrenal glands
96. Your teacher asks you to describe the sequence of parts of a neuron that the impulse travels during neural conduction. Which of the following sequences will you offer?
*d. dendrites, soma, axon, synaptic knob
97. Involuntary muscles are controlled by the ________ nervous system.
*b. autonomic
98. Marika needs to have a neuroimaging test that will track the activity of her brain, but wants to use a radioactive tracer that is more easily obtained than those used for PET. Which of the following offers the best alternative based on Marika’s needs?
*d. single photo emission computed tomography (SPECT)
99. The branchlike structures that receive messages from other neurons are called ________.
*c. dendrites
100. The thick band of neurons that connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres is called the:
*c. corpus callosum
101. Joella was rollerblading when a cat jumped right in front of her, causing her to trip and fall. When she fell, she partially landed on the front side of her head near her forehead. Shortly afterward, Joella exhibited symptoms similar to that of Phineas Gage. Which lobe would have been most affected by this fall?
*a. frontal
102. Pain-controlling chemicals in the body are called ________.
*d. endorphins
103. Which of the following best represents the order in which a neuron receives and transmits information?
*a. dendrites, cell body, axon, axon terminals
104. Neuroplasticity is most evident in which of the following circumstances?
*b. when we learn something new or store new information
105. One purpose of the ________ is to speed up the neural message traveling down the axon.
*c. myelin
106. Rashad is in the hospital and is about to undergo a brain-imaging process that involves placing him inside a magnetic field so that a computer can create three-dimensional images of his brain. What procedure is he about to undergo?
*b. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
107. Which of the following cognitive abilities has been found to be normal in people diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder?
*a. some aspects of attention
108. Which of the following regions contains the somatosensory cortex?
*b. parietal lobe
109. Because they have similar chemical structures, morphine and heroin are able to lock into receptor sites for ________.
*d. endorphins
110. During action potential, the electrical charge inside the neuron is ________ the electrical charge outside the neuron.
*a. positive compared to
111. The area at the back of the left temporal lobe that is crucial in the ability to listen, process, and understand what others are saying is ________ area.
*c. Wernicke’s
112. Which of the following are responsible for acting as a facilitator of communication between neurons?
*b. interneurons
113. Signals from the neurons of which sense are not sent to the cortex by the thalamus?
*b. smell
114. Mary put her hand on a hot stove. Which neuron is responsible for sending a pain message up her spinal column, where it would then enter into the main area of the cord?
*c. sensory neuron
115. The term neurotransmitter refers to ________.
*a. a chemical found in the synaptic vesicles that is released into the synapse
116. The effect of alcohol is to enhance the effect of _________, which causes the general inhibition of the nervous system associated with getting drunk.
*a. GABA
117. Reuptake is ________.
*c. a process by which neurotransmitters are sucked back into the synaptic vesicles
118. What is the function of myelin?
*c. to speed up the neural impulse
119. John has decided to start to learn how to wrestle. On his first day at practice, a seasoned wrestler slams the back of his head to the mat. John was shaken and reported to the trainer that he “saw stars” after he hit his head. As a result of “seeing stars,” John’s ______ was temporarily affected as a result of the slam.
*b. occipital lobe
120. Endorphins are ________.
*c. pain-controlling chemicals
121. The cortex is divided into two sections referred to as ____________.
*a. cerebral hemispheres
122. The central nervous system consists of ______.
*b. the brain and spinal cord
123. When a neuron fires, it fires in a(n) ________ fashion, as there is no such thing as “partial” firing.
*a. all-or-none
124. Which of the following are tiny sacs in an axon terminal that release chemicals into the synapse?
*a. synaptic vesicles
125. The branch of life sciences which involves the structure and function of the brain and nervous system, while also focusing on the relationship between learning and behavior, is called ________.
*a. neuroscience
126. Which is NOT a specific function of the right hemisphere of the brain?
*b. analysis of detail
127. The state during which a neuron contains more negatively charged ions inside the cell than outside the cell and is not firing is referred to as the ________.
*d. resting potential
128. Which of the following is the upper part of the brain consisting of two cerebral hemispheres and the structures that connect them?
*b. cerebrum
129. Tim is overweight. His physician has decided to test him to see if there is a problem with the regulation of his __________. Which endocrine gland will be the focus of diagnostic testing?
*c. thyroid
130. Which of the following coordinates involuntary rapid fine-motor movement?
*d. cerebellum
131. Incoming sensory messages are made sense of in ________.
*c. the association areas
132. Endocrine glands ________.
*a. secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream
133. The two types of glial cells are called ________ and ________.
*b. oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells
134. Which of the following lobes are involved in planning, memory, and personality?
*c. frontal lobes
135. Why do many reflexes, such as pulling your hand away from a hot iron, happen so quickly?
*b. The message involved does not have to go all the way to the brain.
136. The autonomic nervous system has two divisions: the ________ and the ________.
*b. sympathetic; parasympathetic
137. If Mindy’s doctor has taken a series of images of her brain using X-rays, then she has likely had a(n) ________.
*c. CT
138. The function of the ________ is to carry information to and from all parts of the body.
*c. nervous system
139. A brain-imaging method called ______________ takes advantage of the magnetic properties of different atoms to take sharp, three-dimensional images of the brain.
*b. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
140. The part of the neuron whose name literally means “branch” is ________.
*b. dendrite
141. The nervous system is defined as________.
*a. a complex network of cells that carries information to and from all parts of the body
142. The area of the frontal lobe that is devoted to the production of fluent speech is ________ area.
*a. Broca’s
143. The cerebellum ________.
*c. coordinates involuntary rapid fine-motor movement
144. A researcher wants to obtain a “movie” of changes in the activity of the brain using images from different time periods. Which of these would be the best choice for this researcher?
*d. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
145. Al is trying to decide whether the shower is hot enough to step in. Hal is listening to his MP3 player. Sal is looking at a beautiful painting in an art museum. Which individual is using his parietal lobe?
*a. Al
146. The fluid-filled space between the synaptic knob of one cell and the dendrites of the next cell is called the ________.
*b. synapse
147. Bobby B. was rollerblading when a cat jumped right in front of him, causing him to fall. When he fell, he landed on the side of his head. Shortly afterwards, Bobby complained that he could not understand what people were saying to him. Which lobe would have been most affected by this fall given what he experienced?
*b. temporal
148. Which of the following are the three basic types of neurons?
*d. interneurons, sensory neurons, motor neurons
149. The ________ is a structure in the brain stem responsible for life-sustaining functions, such as breathing and heart rate.
*c. medulla
150. A brain-imaging method that takes computer-controlled X-rays of the brain is called ________.
*d. computed tomography (CT)
151. The function of the neuron’s axon is to ________.
*a. carry messages to other cells
152. ________ receive messages from other neurons and ________ send messages to other neurons.
*d. Dendrites; axons
153. What are two roles of glial cells?
*a. acting as insulation and providing structure to surrounding neurons
154. When the electric potential in a cell is in action versus a resting state, this electrical charge reversal is known as the ________.
*c. action potential
155. The saclike structures found inside the synaptic knob containing chemicals are called ________.
*c. synaptic vesicles
156. Curare, a poison, works by ________.
*a. blocking receptor sites and acting as an antagonist for acetylcholine
157. After being bitten by a black widow spider, Jean starts to convulse. This is a result of ________.
*d. a flood of acetylcholine releasing into the body’s muscle system
158. The brain and spinal cord are two components of the ______.
*a. central nervous system
159. Neurons found in the center of the spinal cord that receive information from the sensory neurons and send commands to the muscles through the motor neurons are called ________.
*b. interneurons
160. The peripheral nervous system consists of the ________ and ________ nervous systems.
*a. autonomic; somatic
161. The sex glands, which secrete hormones that regulate sexual development and behavior as well as reproduction, are called _________.
*b. the gonads
162. In order to study parts of an animal’s brain, researchers may sometimes deliberately damage a part of the brain. They accomplish this by placing into the brain a thin insulated wire through which they send an electrical current that destroys the brain cells at the tip of the wire. This technique is called ____________.
*a. lesioning
163. Small metal disks are pasted onto Miranda’s scalp and they are connected by wire to a machine that translates the electrical energy from her brain into wavy lines on a moving piece of paper. From this description, it is evident that Miranda’s brain is being studied through the use of ________.
*d. an electroencephalogram
164. Which of the following is a brain-imaging method in which radioactive sugar is injected into the subject and a computer compiles a color-coded image of the activity of the brain?
*c. positron emission tomography (PET)
165. If your ________ was damaged, you might walk oddly and have trouble standing normally.
*c. cerebellum
166. Jennifer has been diagnosed with spinocerebellar degeneration. The first stage of the disease involves tremors and unsteady gate. In the later stages, she will be unable to stand, walk, and will be uncoordinated in her movements. This disease affects the part of the brain called the ________.
*c. cerebellum
167. The thalamus is often compared to a(n) ________.
*a. triage nurse
168. Which part of the brain is very small but extremely powerful and controls the pituitary gland?
*c. hypothalamus
169. Eating, drinking, sexual behavior, sleeping, and temperature control are most strongly influenced by the ________.
*c. hypothalamus
170. People suffering from Alzheimer’s disease have much lower levels of acetylcholine in the _________.
*a. hippocampus
171. The part of the brain located just behind the temples, containing neurons responsible for the sense of hearing and meaningful speech, is called the ________.
*a. temporal lobes
172. Warren is having trouble deciding what he wants to eat for breakfast. Which lobe of his brain is especially active as he makes his selection?
*c. frontal
173. Phineas Gage tragically had a tamping iron propelled through his head. Both left and right sides of the prefrontal cortex were severely damaged. As a result of the accident, Phineas Gage:
*d. suffered a change in personality.
174. Pat has decided to undergo surgery to treat her severe epilepsy. Consequently, her doctors will use a surgical procedure in which they will sever her ________.
*b. corpus callosum
175. Traditionally, many have made the analogy that the left brain is to the right brain as ________.
*a. logical is to artistic
176. The scientific study of the changes that occur in people as they age from conception to death is called ________.
*c. human development
177. In a _______design, one group of participants is followed and assessed as the group ages.
*b. longitudinal
178. The local health department of a small town has hired a research firm to study the development of cancer in residents in the town due to a suspected cancer-causing agent and environmental pollution. The researcher will compare data on participants every ten years (e.g., at ages 10, 20, 30, etc.) to see if there are increasing rates of cancer in the town. This type of research study is called a _______.
*b. longitudinal design
179. A researcher who selects a sample of people of varying ages and studies them at one point in time is, by definition, using the _______ method.
*d. cross-sectional design
180. Professor Grant is interested in studying the development of a sense of humor. She collects data from groups of 6-year-olds, 16-year-olds, 26-year-olds, and 46-year-olds. What type of research design is Professor Grant using?
*d. cross-sectional design
181. Unlike other types of research, a cross-sequential design allows researchers to _______.
*a. combine longitudinal and cross-sectional research strategies
182. Professor Rashad is interested in studying cognitive development. He collects and compares data from a group of 6-year-olds and a group of 10-year-olds. Five years later, he compares these two groups to each other again as well as to their own performance in the study five years ago. What type of research design is Professor Grant using?
*a. cross-sequential design
183. Dr. Smith believes people who are very aggressive have become so because of their life experiences. Dr. Goldberg believes people are more or less aggressive from birth because of genetic factors. Which of the following terms best describes an issue in human development that is highlighted by their disagreement?
*a. nature versus nurture
184. Juan and Carlos are identical twins. Juan was raised by his father and mother, and Carlos was accidentally placed with another family after a “mix up” at the hospital. At the age of 15, both boys “ran into each other” at a football game and noticed how they appeared to be “mirror images of each other.” After proving they were twins by genetic testing, the families discussed some of the differences between the boys. Juan is very athletic and intelligent and excels in basketball but does not take school seriously and has F’s in all subjects. Carlos is also athletic and intelligent, and excels in baseball and makes straight A’s as a result of his strict home life and study routine. Although they are identical twins, what do you think accounts for the differences in their academic performance based on the research?
*a. nurture
185. Each of the 10 children born to Ernest and Elvira Orangeburg has been born with red hair. Each child is also very intelligent and athletic. The Orangeburgs are expecting an 11th child, who is also likely to be born with the same traits according to _______, as evidenced in the _______.
*b. nature; nature versus nurture controversy
186. According to research conducted by Ridley (1999), how could individuals like Adolf Hitler or Boston Marathon bomber Dzhokhar Tsarnaev commit such acts according to the “nature versus nurture” debate?
*b. Their behaviors are the result of the interaction of nature and nurture.
187. What relatively new field investigates the influence of genes and heredity on a person’s actions?
*c. behavioral genetics
188. The science of heredity is called _______.
*b. genetics
189. A special molecule, _______, contains the genetic material of the organism.
*a. DNA
190. How many pairs of chromosomes are normally in each cell of the human body?
*b. 23
191. A gene that actively controls the expression of a trait is called a _______ gene.
*d. dominant
192. A gene that only influences the expression of a trait when paired with another less active gene is called _______.
*a. recessive
193. Ryan has cystic fibrosis. This means that his mother is a carrier for the cystic fibrosis gene, while his father _______.
*a. is also a carrier
194. In _______ syndrome, the 21st pair of chromosomes contains an extra chromosome resulting in symptoms such as wide-set almond-shaped eyes and mental retardation.
*b. Down
195. What is the cause of Down syndrome?
*a. an extra chromosome on the 21st pair
196. In _______ syndrome, the 23rd pair of chromosomes is missing an X, resulting in short, infertile females.
*d. Turner’s
197. At fertilization, the chromosomes from the father’s sperm unite with the chromosomes from the mother’s egg, creating a new cell called a(n) _______.
*b. zygote
198. The union of the ovum and sperm is called _______.
*a. fertilization
199. Conjoined twins are _______.
*a. monozygotic twins
200. Brittany and Abby Hensel are _______.
*d. conjoined twins
201. Marisa is at a point in her pregnancy when the zygote is moving down to her uterus, and the placenta and umbilical cord are beginning to form. Which period of prenatal development is Marisa currently experiencing?
*d. germinal
202. The placenta is _______.
*c. a specialized organ that provides nourishment and filters away waste products from the developing baby
203. The specialized organ that provides nourishment and filters away waste products from the developing baby is called the _______.
*a. placenta
204. Emily and her husband are thrilled as they peer into Emily’s uterus by means of an ultrasound. The physician reports that the pregnancy appears normal, and that their baby’s fingers, toes, heart, and circulatory system are developing as expected. The couple learns that the baby is only an inch long. Given this information, the current stage of prenatal development is the _______.
*a. embryonic period
205. Times when certain internal and external influences have a major impact on development are called _______.
*b. critical periods
206. Which of the following terms is used to describe any substance, such as a drug, chemical, or virus that can bring about a birth defect?
*a. teratogen
207. Isabelle’s baby was born blind, deaf, and with heart defects and brain damage. Most likely Isabelle was exposed to _______ during her pregnancy.
*a. rubella
208. The prenatal period during which tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become functional is called the _______ period.
*c. fetal
209. The most likely cause for miscarriage during the first three months of pregnancy is _______.
*a. a genetic defect
210. By what age do infants develop a preference for salty tastes?
*b. by four months
211. At birth, newborns seem most responsive to _______.
*a. high pitches and low pitches
212. Which of these physical skills typically develops LAST?
*c. walking
213. Which of the following is the correct order of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?
*c. sensorimotor; preoperational; concrete operations; formal operations
214. According to Piaget, the stage of cognitive development between 2 and 7 years of age, in which the child learns to use language as a means of exploring the world, is the _______ stage.
*c. preoperational
215. According to Piaget, the stage of cognitive development between 2 and 7 years of age, in which the child learns to use words, images, or actions to understand the world, is the _______ stage.
*c. preoperational
216. Elijah is a 3-year boy who likes to spread his peas and carrots all over his plate. After spreading out his food, he asks for more. His mom pushes all the food together and Elijah continues to eat. Which period of cognitive development is Elijah in?
*c. preoperational
217. Ron, a toddler, takes a picture and puts it to the receiver of a phone in order to “show” it to his grandmother. This example illustrates _______.
*d. egocentrism
218. Your little brother has a big ball of clay. While he watches, you roll the ball of clay into a long snake-like shape. He begins to cry because he thinks he has less clay now. Which of Piaget’s stages is your brother likely to be in?
*b. preoperational
219. In which of Piaget’s stages does the child develop conservation?
*d. concrete operational
220. Which of Jean Piaget’s stages of cognitive development is characterized by abstract thinking and the creation of hypotheticals?
*c. formal operational
221. In contrast to Piaget, Vygotsky emphasized the role of _______ during development.
*b. social and cultural interactions
222. Which of the following illustrates Vygotsky’s concept of scaffolding?
*b. A teacher works one-on-one with a student and then begins to withdraw help as the student becomes more skilled.
223. Infants typically begin to make vowel-like sounds at around the age of _______.
*b. 2 months
224. A baby’s language, which consists of repetition of consonant-vowel combinations, is called _______.
*d. babbling
225. By about 12 months, most infants _______.
*b. build a vocabulary of one-word phrases
226. Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of temperament described by Thomas and Chess?
*a. active
227. According to Thomas and Chess, a child that is very irregular in their schedules, resists change, and tends to be loud is labeled a(n) _______ child.
*b. difficult
228. Chester is irritable, loud, and negative most of the time. He doesn’t like it when new people pick him up, and he has irregular sleeping, eating, and waking schedules. What temperament does he exhibit?
*c. difficult
229. Egbert is a quiet child who is very slow to adapt to change. However, if he is introduced gradually to new people or situations, then eventually he will accept them without too much distress. Thomas and Chess would say his temperament is _______.
*b. slow-to-warm-up
230. The emotional bond that forms between an infant and a primary caregiver is called _______.
*b. attachment
231. If a child is exposed to the “strange situation,” then he or she _______.
*d. will be left with a stranger or alone in an unfamiliar situation
232. Which type of attachment style is characterized by babies who do not seem to care very much whether the mother is present or absent, and are equally comfortable with her and a stranger?
*b. avoidant
233. Mary Ainsworth observed that securely attached infants _______.
*c. cry if the mother leaves the room, are easily soothed, and welcome her back when she returns
234. _______ babies in Ainsworth’s study were clinging and unwilling to explore, very upset by the stranger regardless of the mother’s presence, protested mightily when the mother left, were hard to soothe, and had mixed reactions upon mother’s return.
*c. Ambivalent
235. In Erikson’s _______ stage of psychosocial development, preschoolers are challenged to control their own behavior.
*c. initiative versus guilt
236. Between the ages of 5 and 12, children strive to develop a sense of competence arising from their work and effort. Erikson refers to this stage of life as _______.
*d. industry versus inferiority
237. The period of life from about age 13 to the early twenties, during which a young person is no longer physically a child but is not yet an independent, self-supporting adult, is called _______.
*a. adolescence
238. Puberty is defined as _______.
*c. the physical changes that occur in the body as sexual development reaches its peak
239. The growth spurt for girls typically begins at what age?
*c. 10
240. The development of formal operations in adolescence leads to _______.
*c. introspection and egocentrism
241. Mary is an adolescent who currently has a small pimple on her cheek that is causing her to be overly self-conscious. She is convinced that everyone she meets stares at and talks about her pimple. Mary’s behavior exhibits _______.
*b. imaginary audience
242. The reckless risk taking found among many adolescents is most likely due to the effects of _______.
*b. the personal fable
243. The tendency of teenagers to feel that they are always “on stage” and that they are the center of everyone else’s world, just as they are the center of their own, is a phenomenon known as _______.
*b. the imaginary audience
244. Abe just got his driver’s license. He loves to speed around town going more than 20 miles per hour above the speed limit. He believes that he can speed through red lights due to his perfect timing. This is an example of _______.
*b. personal fable
245. Brad is in an electronics store with his parents. He looks at the CDs and thinks for a moment that he could grab one and put it beneath his coat. As he considers this possibility, he decides not to do it because he might get caught and his parents would punish him. What stage of moral development does Brad’s decision represent?
*b. preconventional
246. Saul believes in the Golden Rule and desperately wants people to view him as a good person. Most likely, he is in which level of moral development?
*c. conventional
247. When faced with a conflict between law and conscience, Liz follows her conscience despite the personal risk. This would be characteristic of _______.
*c. postconventional morality
248. What is the sequence of stages of moral development as identified by Lawrence Kohlberg?
*a. preconventional, conventional, postconventional
249. Conflicts between adolescents and their parents tend to be over _______.
*a. trivial things
250. The twenties is a time of _______.
*a. peak physical health
251. Around age 40, adults _______.
*b. may need to wear bifocal lenses
252. The period of five to ten years during which a woman’s reproductive system begins to decline is called _______.
*b. perimenopause
253. Sarah is in her forties. Her menstrual cycle is irregular and she is experiencing “hot flashes” that are keeping her awake at night. The changes Sarah is experiencing are called _______.
*a. the climacteric
254. The average age of menopause is _______.
*c. 51
255. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of death in middle adulthood?
*c. heart disease
256. According to Erikson, an emotional and psychological closeness that is based on the ability to trust, share, and care, while still maintaining one’s sense of self, is called _______.
*b. intimacy
257. Erik Erikson saw the major challenge of middle adulthood as that of _______.
*d. generativity versus stagnation
258. Germain tends to rule his home with an iron fist. His children know the rules and they are expected to obey them without question, or there will be harsh consequences. Diana Baumrind would describe Germain’s parenting style as _______.
*a. authoritarian
259. A child from which of the following parenting types would be most likely to lack social skills later in life?
*d. permissive
260. Hector is 70 years old and has just retired from a career as a lawyer. He is now spending time looking back on his life and is recognizing, as well as coming to terms with, mistakes, regrets, and unfinished business. Hector is engaging in a process called _______.
*d. life review
261. Which of the following theories sees aging as a process whereby cells are assumed to have a limitation on the number of times they can reproduce to repair damage?
*b. cellular clock theory
262. The theory in which aging is attributed to our bodies’ organs and cell tissues simply wearing out with repeated use and abuse is called_______.
*b. wear-and-tear theory
263. The correct sequence of the five stages of death and dying postulated by Kübler-Ross is _______.
*a. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance
264. Mr. Beluga has just been told that he has a rare form of cancer. He insists that there has been a mistake and asks his physician to retake his medical tests. According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, Mr. Beluga is most likely in the _______ stage of dying.
*c. denial
265. Several weeks of diagnostic tests have revealed that cancer has spread throughout Barry’s body. His physician suggested that he “take care of important matters.” Barry realizes his family’s home needs repairs, so he arranges to have that done right away. To relieve his family of the agony of planning his funeral, he has made all the arrangements. Barry tells his minister he has had a good life and just wants to make sure he provides for his family after his death. This description fits the stage Kübler-Ross called _______.
*b. acceptance
PSYC 2301 Practice Test 2
1. Learning to make a reflex response to a stimulus other than to the original, natural stimulus is called ________________.
*a. classical conditioning
2. When Keller and Marian Breland, two psychologists who became animal trainers, decided that it would be cute to have a pig drop a big wooden coin into a box, they found that _______________.
*c. the pig displayed instinctive drift by dropping the coin and pushing it around with its nose
3. The “aha!” experience is known as ________________.
*b. insight learning
4. Al must build 25 radios before he receives $20. What schedule of reinforcement is being used?
*b. a fixed-ratio schedule
5. College students faced with unsolvable problems eventually give up and make only half-hearted attempts to solve new problems, even when the new problems can be solved easily. This behavior is probably due to ______.
*a. learned helplessness
6. How does Ernest Hilgard explain hypnosis?
*c. Hypnotized individuals dissociate the conscious mind into an “immediate” part and a “hidden observer” part.
7. Sleep research supports three of the following helpful hints. Which statement is NOT accurate?
*c. Sleeping pills help cure insomnia.
8. A client tells his therapist about a dream of riding on a train with his boss. At the end of the journey, the boss gets off the train at a terminal. The content of this dream, as related by the client to the therapist, is what Freud called its ________.
*b. manifest content
9. Upon just waking up, you report a vivid visual event. What term do psychologists use for such phenomena?
*c. hypnogogic images or hallucinations
10. Which of the following is CORRECT concerning REM deprivation?
*c. REM deprivation leads to increased amounts of REM sleep on subsequent nights of sleep.
11. ________, a hormone involved in the regulation of circadian rhythms, is secreted by the pineal gland.
*d. Melatonin
12. Judith is startled when her 6-year-old daughter, Laura, sleepwalks into the family room. It is most likely that Laura is experiencing the ________ stage of the sleep cycle.
*d. fourth
13. Daydreaming, meditation, intoxication, sleep, and hypnosis are all types of ________.
*d. altered states of consciousness 3
14. A biological cycle, or rhythm, that is approximately 24 hours long is called a(n) ________ cycle.
*b. circadian
15. A sleep disorder that may require the use of a machine to force air gently into the nasal passages is called ________.
*a. sleep apnea
16. Sigmund Freud was interested in how dreams affected the stages of sleep.
*b. False
17. If you have been waking up too early for several weeks, you are probably suffering from ________.
*a. insomnia
18. Melatonin is a _______________.
*a. hormone
19. REM behavior disorder most commonly occurs ________.
*a. in men over 60
20. Each of the following is a sleep disorder EXCEPT ________.
*b. REM rebound
21. LSD is similar to which of the following drugs?
*c. PCP
22. The two most important symptoms of substance dependence are:
*c. tolerance and withdrawal.
23. Which of the following statements is correct concerning what hypnosis can do?
*a. Hypnosis can create amnesia.
24. Which of the following people will be helped by hypnosis?
*d. Carlos, who wants to stop thinking about his foot pain
25. CPAP stands for ________.
*a. continuous positive airway pressure
26. If Frank is using a drug that causes addiction in nearly 75% of those who use it, he is probably ingesting:
*c. crack
27. Upon just waking up, you report a vivid visual event. What term do psychologists use for such phenomena?
*d. hypnopompic image
28. The hypothalamus controls the ________.
*b. sleep-wake cycle
29. One major danger of barbiturates is ________.
*c. drug interaction
30. Which of the following statements is true concerning cocaine use in the United States?
*b. At one time, cocaine was an ingredient in Coca-Cola.
31. All of the following are signs of physical dependence related to cocaine EXCEPT ________.
*d. obsessing about where to buy it
32. Your brain waves are being monitored in a sleep laboratory. If you are in deep sleep less than an hour after falling asleep, what brain waves will be detected?
*d. delta
33. A sleep disorder characterized by difficulty in falling asleep or remaining asleep throughout the night is called sleep apnea.
*b. False
34. You are telling a joke to your friend who is laughing uproariously and then suddenly collapses to the floor. You are not surprised to later learn that he has a sleep disorder known as ________.
*b. narcolepsy
35. A sleep disorder characterized by difficulty in falling asleep or remaining asleep throughout the night is:
*d. insomnia
36. Drugs derived from opium are called ________.
*c. narcotics
37. According to this theory, sleep is a product of evolution.
*b. adaptive theory
38. Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning the concept of sex and dreams?
*c. Research reports that men and women differ in the things they dream about.
39. A person will often take a barbiturate as a ________.
*a. sleep aid
40. What would you expect to see on the EEG record of a person who is engaged in an episode of sleepwalking?
*c. evidence of deep sleep (stages 3 or 4)
41. Mental activities that differ noticeably from normal waking consciousness are known as _________.
*d. altered states of consciousness
42. The restorative theory views sleep as ________.
*b. helping the body repair the wear and tear of the day’s events
43. If you are awakened from sleep and you feel as though you had not even been asleep, then you were most likely in which stage of sleep?
*a. Stage 1 (N1)
44. Which statement is correct concerning how much sleep people need?
*c. Most young adults need between 7 and 9 hours of sleep.
45. Consciousness is the ________.
*b. awareness of ourselves and the environment
46. REM behavior disorder results from ________.
*c. failure of the brain mechanisms to block brain signals to the muscles
47. Freud believed that dreams ________.
*a. stem from unconscious conflicts, memories, and desires
48. Which of the following is classified as a depressant?
*b. alcohol
49. Night terrors are really a dramatic extension of nightmares.
*b. False
50. The sleep-wake cycle is ultimately controlled by the part of the brain called the ________.
*c. hypothalamus
51. This early researcher did a study that seemed to suggest that people deprived of REM sleep would become paranoid, seemingly mentally ill, from lack of this one stage of sleep.
*b. Dement
52. What term do psychologists use to designate our personal awareness of feelings, sensations, and thoughts?
*d. consciousness
53. The social-cognitive theory of hypnosis suggests that ________.
*b. people are merely playing a role
54. The idea of a “hidden observer” part of the mind was suggested by ________.
*c. Hilgard
55. Russell needs more of the drug he has been using to get the normal high he got when he first started. Russell is experiencing _______________.
*a. drug tolerance
56. Judith is startled when her 6-year-old daughter, Laura, sleepwalks into the family room. It is most likely that Laura is experiencing the ________ stage of the sleep cycle.
*d. fourth
57. Surgery to which organ in the body may relieve symptoms of apnea?
*b. uvula
58. You see an advertisement for a method of learning a foreign language that seems simple—just put on a tape and fall asleep. The accompanying description cites proof that people can learn while asleep. Being a good psychological detective, what question would you ask about the offered proof?
*b. What did the EEG indicate about the participants’ level of sleep?
59. Russell needs more of the drug he has been using to get the normal high he used to get when he first started. Russell is experiencing flashbacks.
*b. False
60. Sleep research supports three “helpful hints” to avoid insomnia. Which of the following statements is NOT a helpful hint?
*c. Try to nap as much as possible.
61. Our awareness of various mental processes, such as making decisions, daydreaming, reflecting, and concentrating, is called ______.
*a. consciousness
62. Which of the following pairs belong together?
*d. marijuana; tetrahydrocannabinol
63. A circadian cycle is about ________ hours long.
*d. 24
64. What two categories of dream content did Sigmund Freud describe?
*c. latent and manifest
65. Our sleep-wake cycle follows a(n) ________rhythm.
*c. circadian
66. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the relationship of the total amount of sleep that an individual receives as a function of age?
*b. As we age, we tend to get less sleep.
67. Psychoactive drugs are ________.
*b. drugs capable of influencing thinking, perception, and memory
68. Sleep research supports three helpful hints to avoid insomnia. Which of the following statements is one of them?
*d. It is better to go to bed at about the same time every night.
69. How does the activation-synthesis hypothesis explain dreaming?
*c. the cortex making sense of signals from the brain stem
70. All of the following result from sleep deprivation EXCEPT ________.
*c. hyperalertness
71. Which of the following pairs belong together?
*d. marijuana; tetrahydrocannabinol
72. You find it hard to sleep due to your roommate’s sleeping behavior. She snores quite a bit and at times it sounds as though she has great difficulty breathing. Your roommate may have ________.
*a. sleep apnea
73. There have been cases in which sleepwalking was a successful murder defense.
*a. True
74. The deepest stage of sleep is ________ sleep.
*d. Stage 4 (N4)
75. Sigmund Freud said that the key to analyzing a dream would be found in the manifest content.
*b. False 11
76. Which of the following neurotransmitters are associated with alcohol?
*a. GABA
77. Your friend has experienced excessive daytime sleepiness. He is laughing with you and suddenly falls to the ground. Your friend is probably suffering from ________.
*a. narcolepsy
78. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
*a. Night terrors are a rare disorder.
79. Upon just waking up, you report a vivid visual event. What term do psychologists use for such phenomena?
*d. hypnopompic image
80. You are watching sleep researchers monitor the sleep of a normal adult. The participant is hooked up to an EEG. What brain waves would you observe as the person becomes drowsy and then enters the first stage of sleep?
*c. beta eventually replaced by alpha
81. All of the following result from sleep deprivation EXCEPT ________________.
*c. hyperalertness
82. Which of the following statements might help you determine if an individual has narcolepsy?
*c. “I sometimes suddenly fall asleep in the middle of a conversation.”
83. Each of the following is a sleep disorder EXCEPT ______.
*b. REM rebound
84. In one study, over 2,500 photographs were shown to participants, one every 10 seconds. Participants were then shown pairs of photographs in which one member of each pair was one of the previously seen photographs. Accuracy for identifying the previously seen photos was _________.
*d. 85 to 95 percent
85. A. R. Luria studied a mnemonist with phenomenal memory. This person had several problems associated with the ability. Which was one was reported in your textbook?
*c. separating trivial from important memories
86. Moishe can remember only the first two items and the last two items on the grocery list that his wife just read to him over the phone. The other five items in between are gone. His memory of things at the end of the list demonstrates the __________.
*c. recency effect
87. Loss of memory from the point of injury or illness forward is called _________.
*a. anterograde amnesia
88. Imagine that the first car you learned to drive was a manual transmission with a clutch, but the car you drive now is an automatic. Sometimes you find yourself reaching for the clutch that is no longer there. This example illustrates _________.
*b. proactive interference
89. Shaquin finished his term paper and handed it in. As he walked out of the classroom, he realized that there were a few more things he should have included in the paper. Shaquin’s problem is the _________ component of memory.
*c. retrieval
90. How do retrieval cues help you to remember?
*c. They direct you to relevant information stored in long-term memory.
91. False positives occur when a person incorrectly “matches” a stimulus that is merely similar to a real memory to that memory. One major problem with eyewitness testimony is that _________.
*c. false positives can cause eyewitness testimony to be quite inaccurate
92. The key to the partial report method of Sperling’s study of sensory memory was to _________.
*c. cue the participants, using a tone, as to which line of the matrix they were to report
93. Decay theory works well to explain forgetting in _________.
*d. sensory memory and short-term memory
94. Suzy looks up from her lunch, realizing that Jacques has just said something to her. What was it? Oh, yes, he has just asked her if she wants to go to the movies. Suzy’s ability to retrieve what Jacques said is due to her _________.
*b. echoic sensory memory
95. Jesse still has very vivid memories of his first romantic kiss. This example illustrates a specific form of _________ memory known as a(n) _________ memory.
*b. episodic; autobiographical
96. A police officer is shot in a gun battle with bank robbers. Although emergency brain surgery saves his life, it leaves him unable to store new information. The officer’s family is applying to the state for compensation for his injuries. When asked to provide a diagnosis of the difficulties he suffers, what will they write?
*b. anterograde amnesia
97. Which of the following statements is true of retrieval cues?
*a. They are important in helping us remember items stored in long-term memory.
98. A patient’s chart indicates he just had surgery to remove his hippocampus as a result of a tumor. What change do you anticipate in the patient after the operation?
*c. The patient will not be able to remember new information.
99. In the partial report method of Sperling’s study of sensory memory, the participants were to report:
*a. one of three lines of letters as indicated by the sound of a tone immediately presented after the letters had disappeared
100. In the 1950s, George Miller estimated the number of items that could be stored in short-term memory to be the magic number _________.
*b. 7, plus or minus 2
101. Memory is defined as an active system that consists of three processes. They are _________.
*a. receiving information from the senses, organizing and storing the information, and retrieving the information from storage
102. _________ appears to be responsible for the storage of new long-term memories. If it is removed, the ability to store anything new is completely lost.
*c. The hippocampus
103. Which theorist is associated with the idea that information moves from sensory memory to short-term memory through the processes of selective attention?
*d. Broadbent
104. Short-term memories appear to be localized in the _________.
*d. prefrontal lobes
105. Janie is taking an exam in her history class. On the exam, there is a question that asks her to state and discuss the five major causes of the Trans-Caspian War (whatever that was!). Janie remembers four of them. She knows there is a fifth, but time is up. As Janie is walking down the stairs, all of a sudden, she remembers the fifth point, but it is too late. Janie had a problem with _________.
*c. retrieval
106. The levels-of-processing concept would suggest that which of the following questions would lead to better memory of the word frog?
*d. “Would it be found in a pond?”
107. Under most circumstances, when you are intentionally trying to remember an item of information, _________ is an easier task than _________.
*a. recognition; recall
108. In this view, memories are literally “built” from the pieces stored away at encoding. This view is called _________.
*a. constructive processing
109. In the famous case of H. M., after having part of his brain removed, he could _________.
*d. All of these choices are correct. 16
110. Alzheimer’s disease accounts for between _________ and _________ percent of all dementia cases in the United States.
*b. 60-80
111. Remembering your first day of college classes is an example of _________ memories.
*a. episodic
112. When people hear a sound, their ears turn the vibrations in the air into neural messages from the auditory nerve, which makes it possible for the brain to interpret the sound. This process is called _________.
*a. encoding
113. People with Alzheimer’s disease typically have a memory problem known as _________.
*d. anterograde amnesia
114. What type of stimuli did Hermann Ebbinghaus use in his memory experiments?
*d. nonsense syllables
115. The first step in the memory process is _________ information in a form that the memory system can use.
*a. encoding
116. A psychologist asks people to recall the name of their kindergarten teacher. Surprisingly, the majority of people correctly do this and comment, “Gee whiz, I haven’t thought about that old bat [or old coot] in years!” Their ability to do so tends to conflict with which theory of forgetting?
*b. decay or disuse
117. Which of the following is the proper sequence of symptom development in most cases of Alzheimer’s disease?
*a. anterograde amnesia followed by retrograde amnesia
118. Ebbinghaus found that information is forgotten _________.
*c. quickly at first, then tapers off gradually
119. The best analogy for the way long-term memory is conceptualized would be _________.
*b. a filing cabinet
120. Jamal is trying to buy something over the phone. He asks his partner to read him his credit card number. However, when he tries to repeat it to the sales clerk on the other end of the line, he can’t remember all the numbers. Jamal is coming up against _________.
*c. George Miller’s magic number 7, plus or minus 2
121. You are out for a drive with the family and are lucky enough to get a window seat. The rapidly passing scenery you see out the window is first stored in _________.
*b. iconic memory
122. Maria finds that it is easier to remember her student ID number if she thinks of it in segments, such as the first three digits, then the next two, and then the final four. Each of these short segments of the number are called _________.
*c. chunks
123. Long ago, during the early days of television, when a television set was turned off it took a while for the last image that was on the screen to fade away. This phenomenon is most like _________.
*a. iconic memory
124. H. M., a famous amnesiac, gave researchers solid information that the _________ was important in storing new long-term memories.
*a. hippocampus
125. When given a list of items to remember, people tend to do better at recalling the first items on the list than the middle of the list. This is known as the _________.
*d. primacy effect
126. Which memory system provides us with a very brief representation of all the stimuli present at a particular moment?
*b. sensory memory
127. When given a list of items to remember, people tend to do better at recalling the last items on the list. This is known as the _________.
*c. recency effect
128. Believers in the information-processing model of memory are likely to agree that _________.
*b. studying computers can give you useful insights into human information processing
129. The research of Eich and Metcalf would suggest that if you were really happy when you were learning math, you should be _________ when taking the math exam to do well.
*c. happy
130. Evidence suggests that short-term memories are stored in the _________.
*b. prefrontal lobes of the cortex
131. Your teacher has given each student the name of a key figure in the history of psychology. The assignment is to describe at least one significant contribution made by this person. If your historical figure is Hermann Ebbinghaus, what contribution might you describe to the class?
*c. He created nonsense syllables in order to study memory in a “pure” form.
132. Which of the following might be the most appropriate analogy for eidetic imagery?
*d. a photograph
133. The case of Father Bernard Pagano, who was identified by seven eyewitnesses as a criminal, was an instance of a _________.
*d. false positive
134. Evidence suggests that procedural memories are stored in the _________.
*a. cerebellum
135. Which of these is an example of what has been called infantile amnesia?
*b. Johnny, age 10, has no memory of a family vacation that occurred when he was 2 years old.
136. What is one of the real-world uses of iconic storage?
*b. It is the process that covers up the disruption that would occur from microsaccades.
137. Patients with anterograde amnesia were taught to solve the Tower of Hanoi problem. It was later found that they _________.
*d. didn’t remember solving the problem but could do it again 20
138. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
*c. Different parts of the brain are specialized for the storage of memories.
139. Shalissa has two exams today. One is in French and the other is in history. Last night she studied French before history. When she gets to her French test, all she can remember is history! Shalissa’s memory is suffering from _________.
*d. retroactive interference
140. The most influential researcher into eyewitness memory has been _________.
*c. Loftus
141. A man known as H. M. lost the ability to form new memories after an operation removed portions of his _________.
*c. hippocampus
142. Which of the following statements about flashbulb memories is true?
*a. Flashbulb memories tend to be about as accurate as other types of memories.
143. Many middle-aged adults can vividly recall where they were and what they were doing the day that John F. Kennedy was assassinated, although they cannot remember what they were doing the day before he was assassinated. This is an example of _________.
*b. a flashbulb memory
144. Micah is trying to remember the specific route he took to the library the night before. What part of working memory is he accessing?
*b. the visual sketchpad
145. Loni is asked to memorize the letters I K T E A L N in no particular order. She memorizes them by reorganizing them into the words INK and LATE. This tactic is called _________.
*d. chunking
146. In the curve of forgetting developed by Ebbinghaus, the greatest amount of forgetting occurs _________.
*a. within the first hour after learning new material
147. Normally, when food is placed in the mouth of any animal, the salivary glands start releasing saliva to help with chewing and digestion. In terms of Pavlov’s analysis of learning, salivation would be referred to as ________.
*a. an unconditioned response
148. Learning to make a reflex response to a stimulus other than to the original, natural stimulus is called ________.
*a. classical conditioning
149. In the context of classical conditioning, which of the following components “elicits” a response?
*b. UCS
150. The abbreviation UCR stands for ________.
*d. unconditioned response
151. Imagine that you flinch after seeing lightning because in previous instances the lightning is followed by thunder, which scared you. In this scenario, lightning can be interpreted as being a(n):
*c. conditioned stimulus.
152. Imagine that you try to condition someone so that a particular sound elicits a literal “knee jerk response.” Which of the following is accurate?
*c. The sound is the CS.
153. The abbreviation CS stands for ________.
*a. conditioned stimulus
154. Pavlov placed meat powder in the mouths of the dogs, and they began to salivate. Pavlov’s student noticed that after a few days the dogs began to salivate at the sound of the student’s footsteps. The salivation to the sound of the footsteps was a ________.
*c. conditioned response
155. In Pavlov’s classic experiments, the repeated presentations of the metronome along with the food formed the ________ step of the classical conditioning process.
*a. acquisition
156. You decide that you are going to condition your dog to salivate to the sound of a metronome. You give the dog a biscuit, and then a second later you sound the metronome. You do this several times, but no conditioning seems to occur. This is probably because ________.
*b. the metronome should have been sounded before the dog ate the biscuit
157. After Little Albert acquired a conditioned fear of rats, Watson wanted to see how he would react to a white rabbit, cotton wool, and a Santa Claus mask. He was studying whether or not ________ had occurred.
*d. stimulus generalization
158. The reappearance of a learned response after extinction has occurred is called ________.
*c. spontaneous recovery
159. An animal is conditioned to salivate to a metronome using Pavlovian procedures. After the conditioning is established, the animal is then put through an extinction procedure and the conditioned salivation disappears. Then the animal is removed from the test situation for several days. When returned to the test situation, the conditioned response is seen again. The effect is known as ________.
*a. spontaneous recovery
160. What would you predict about Little Albert based on the principle of spontaneous recovery?
*a. Even after his fear of a rat was extinguished, the fear could come back.
161. When a strongly conditioned CS is used to make another stimulus into a second CS, the effect is known as ________.
*b. higher-order conditioning
162. John Watson offered a live, white rat to Little Albert and then made a loud noise behind his head by striking a steel bar with a hammer. The white rat served as the ________ in his study.
*c. conditioned stimulus
163. Little Albert’s acquired fear of a white rat was a classic example of a(n) ________ response.
*b. conditioned emotional
164. What was the conditioned stimulus (CS) in the case of Little Albert?
*a. a white rat
165. Watson’s experiment with Little Albert demonstrated that fears might be __________.
*a. based on classical conditioning
166. Which learning theorist is responsible for the discovery of conditioned taste aversions?
*b. Garcia
167. Last month, Walter became sick after eating two chili dogs, so he no longer likes chili dogs. Walter has experienced ____________.
*b. conditioned taste-aversion
168. Conditioned taste aversions are an example of something called ________.
*a. biological preparedness
169. The current view of why classical conditioning works the way it does, advanced by Rescorla and others, adds the concept of ________ to conditioning theory.
*d. expectancy
170. Some researchers believe that classical conditioning takes place only because:
*c. the pairing of the CS and US provides useful information about the likelihood of occurrence of the US.
171. According to Rescorla’s theory, the CS must _______ the UCS or conditioning does not occur.
*d. predict
172. Who was one of the first researchers to explore and outline the laws of voluntary responses?
*d. Thorndike 25
173. Thorndike was known for his work with ________.
*b. a puzzle box
174. A child learns that whenever he eats all of his dinner he gets a cookie for dessert. This type of learning is BEST explained by ________.
*b. operant conditioning
175. Any behavior that is voluntary is referred to as a(n) ________.
*c. operant
176. “If a response is followed by a pleasurable consequence, it will tend to be repeated. If a response is followed by an unpleasant consequence, it will tend not to be repeated.” This is a statement of ________.
*c. Thorndike’s Law of Effect
177. A Skinner box is most likely to be used in research on ________.
*b. operant conditioning
178. A ________ reinforcer is any reward that satisfies a basic, biological need, such a hunger, thirst, or touch.
*a. primary
179. Under what circumstances will a reinforcer make the target response more likely to occur again?
*d. regardless of whether it is a positive or negative reinforcer, a reinforcer makes a response more likely to occur 26
180. A grandmother gives her grandchild a cookie because the child cleaned her room. What is the cookie in this example?
*b. positive reinforcer
181. Positive reinforcement is to _______ as negative reinforcement is to _______.
*d. presenting good results; removing aversive stimuli
182. Bill hates to clean up after dinner. One night, he volunteers to bathe the dog before cleaning up. When he finishes with the dog and returns to the kitchen, his wife has cleaned everything up for him. Which of the following statements is most likely true?
*c. Bill’s wife has negatively reinforced him for bathing the dog.
183. What kind of reinforcement is used if Sally’s parents give her $10 every time she accumulates six A’s on her tests?
*d. partial reinforcement
184. Which of the following statements is true about operant conditioning?
*c. Partial reinforcement leads to behaviors that will persist longer than behavior learned through continuous reinforcement.
185. A monthly paycheck best represents a ________ schedule of reinforcement.
*a. fixed interval
186. Unlike other schedules of reinforcement, ________ results in a “scalloped” pattern of responses on a cumulative frequency graph.
*b. fixed interval
187. Catching fish when fishing in a lake would most likely represent which of the following schedules of reinforcement?
*a. variable interval
188. Getting paid for each basket of apples you gather represents which schedule of reinforcement?
a. fixed interval
189. For years, parents have wondered whether physical discipline of their children (spanking, for example) was an effective and acceptable practice. What findings from many research studies have promoted the idea that spanking a child may be a bad idea?
*d. Children who were spanked at the age of 3 showed more aggressive tendencies by the age of 5.
190. How did the research of Taylor, Manganello, Lee, and Rice (2010) differ substantially from those who had come before in the exploration of the impact of spanking on children?
*b. This research controlled for other maternal risk factors, such as neglect and drug use.
191. Professor Rochelle told her students that if her door was closed it meant that she was unavailable to them and would be angry if they knocked on her door. But if her door was open, it meant that she was in a rare good mood and would answer questions at that time. Professor Rochelle’s door being open was a ___________ for _______________.
*a. discriminative stimulus; asking questions
192. In the process of shaping, behaviors are ordered in terms of increasing similarity to the desired response. These behaviors are called ________.
*b. successive approximations
193. The first time José sees a cat, his mother tells him, “That’s a cat. Can you say cat?” He repeats the word gleefully, and his mother praises him. The next day, he is watching a cartoon and sees a tiger on the television. He points at the tiger and says, “Cat!” This is an example of ________.
*a. generalization
194. When Keller and Marian Breland, two psychologists who became animal trainers, decided that it would be cute to have a pig drop a big wooden coin into a box, they found that _______________.
*c. the pig displayed instinctive drift by dropping the coin and pushing it around with its nose
195. A behavioral psychologist tries to train a bird to climb a tree to get a reward of a piece of fruit. At first, the bird learns how to climb the tree with its legs and beak. After a while, it starts flapping its wings and hopping around before it starts to climb. Eventually, the bird flies up to the piece of fruit, even though that prevents it from getting the fruit. According to the Brelands’ analysis of biological constraints, the bird is demonstrating ________.
*b. that it was reverting to behavior that was instinctual for it
196. Molly is sometimes loud and disruptive in class, and her teacher thinks she acts this way when she wants attention. The teacher worries that yelling at Molly might serve as a positive reinforcer for her bad behavior because it is giving Molly the attention she wants. One behavior modification that might help with this child is ________.
*d. use of time-outs to remove the positive reinforcement that even a scolding gives the child
197. An operant conditioning technique in which a learner gains conscious control over his or her own biological response is ________.
*a. biofeedback
198. In order to treat a child’s attention problems in a classroom, a technique that uses the EEG and video game-style technology called ________ has been employed.
*b. neurofeedback
199. Who is best known for studying the phenomenon of insight in animals?
*a. Köhler
200. You spend days wandering aimlessly around a park with many different paths that end at different parts of the park. One day when you arrive at the park, you get a call on your cell phone from your cousin whom you haven’t seen for years, and she says she is waiting for you in a particular section of the park. Even though the paths are complicated and twisted, you manage to find the shortest route to your cousin. Tolman would explain your efficient passage through the park as an example of ________.
*c. formation of a cognitive map
201. The person most closely associated with research on learned helplessness is ________.
*c. Seligman
202. Observational learning theory’s foremost proponent is ________.
*d. Bandura
203. In Bandura’s study with the Bobo doll, the children in the group who saw the model punished did not imitate the model at first. They would only imitate the model if given a reward for doing so. The fact that these children had obviously learned the behavior without actually performing it is an example of ________.
*a. latent learning
204. A Congressional hearing is taking place in Washington, DC. The representatives are discussing whether the portrayals of violence on children’s TV shows are perhaps contributing to the violence we see in schools today. The work of what psychologist is most relevant to their discussions?
*a. Bandura
205. A Congressional hearing is taking place in Washington, DC. The representatives are discussing whether the portrayals of violence on children’s TV shows are perhaps contributing to the violence we see in schools today. What psychological process are the representatives probably considering as the reason that TV influences school violence?
*a. observational learning
206. Which letters correspond to the four elements of modeling from Bandura’s theory?
*b. AMID
207. In Pavlov’s original experiment of classical conditioning, dogs learned to salivate at the sound of a metronome when the metronome was repeatedly paired with the presentation of food. The food is referred to as the unconditioned response.
*b. False
208. Albert was a little boy who was shown to be remarkably resistant to having his emotional responses conditioned by Watson. Watson presented Albert with a cute little furry rat and then rang a loud bell. Later, Albert should have become scared of the bell, but this never happened.
*b. False
209. Using continuous reinforcement is the best way to prevent a response from becoming extinguished.
*b. False
210. The Brelands tried to condition pigs to drop wooden coins into a bank. This turned out not to be easy, as the pigs tended to make instinctual responses as compared to the learned responses.
*a. True
211. Seligman’s concept of learned helplessness has been extended into the field of psychopathology to explain the emergence of schizophrenia in late adolescence.
*b. False 31
212. Bandura’s seminal study of observational learning involved watching children and their interactions with Bobo dolls.
*a. True
213. When Karawynn Long trained her cat Misha to use a toilet instead of a litter box, the last step in the training was teaching the cat to flush the toilet.
*b. False
214. Which model of memory is most similar in conceptualization to the way computers
*c. information-processing model
215. The fleeting images we see as we look out the car window occur in _________.
*a. sensory memory
216. A time machine provides you the opportunity to interview Sigmund Freud. During the interview, Freud admits that he never wanted to attend medical school. When you ask him how he made it through, he says, “I had eidetic imagery.” What does he mean by that?
*b. He had a photographic memory, which helped him remember the material he had to learn.
217. Iconic memory is to echoic memory as _________.
*c. visual is to auditory
218. Bethany is trying to focus on a conversation across the room during a party she is attending. This is because she thinks she heard her name above the din of the conversation. Her ability to hear her name is due to the mechanism of _________.
*c. selective attention
219. Someone a short distance away, to whom you have been paying no attention, quietly speaks your name, and suddenly you attend to that person. This is an example of _________.
*c. the cocktail party effect
220. Bits of information are combined into meaningful units so that more information can be held in short-term memory through the process of _________.
*a. chunking
221. Suppose Tamika looks up a number in the telephone book. After getting a busy signal, a minute or so later she tries to call again—but has already forgotten the number! This example illustrates the limited duration of _________ memory.
*b. short-term
222. You try to remember a phone number by repeating it over and over to yourself. What type of rehearsal are you using?
*d. maintenance
223. It is thought that long-term memory never can get filled up. The term used to describe the capacity of long-term memory is _________.
*d. unlimited
224. Which type of long-term memory is most difficult to bring into conscious awareness?
*b. procedural memories
225. Memories for general facts and personal information are called _________.
*c. declarative memories
226. _________ memory is constantly updated.
*d. Episodic
227. The Internet, with its series of links from one site to many others, is a good analogy for the organization of _________.
*c. long-term memory
228. When given a list of items to remember, you are more likely to remember _________.
*d. the items at the beginning and at the end more than those in the middle of the list
229. According to primacy and recency effects, when reading the chapters of the textbook, you are most likely to forget _________.
*c. the information in the middle of the chapter
230. For which famous memory researcher is memory a problem-solving activity in which the problem is to give a coherent account of some past event, and the memory is the solution to that problem?
*a. Bartlett
231. Retrieving information from long-term memory is done by assembling information from various brain locations in a process known as _________.
*c. constructive processing
232. Which of these individuals is the most typical person involved in a case in which memories of past childhood abuse are recalled later in life?
*a. thirty-year-old Charlotte, who sought therapy for anxiety, depression, and recent weight gain with a therapist who uses hypnosis
233. Which technique is most widely used by therapists to help clients recover lost childhood memories?
*a. hypnosis
234. In the famous case of H. M., after having part of his brain removed, he could no longer _________.
*c. form new memories
235. Malcolm, aged 35, is severely depressed. Because of this, he is given electroconvulsive shock therapy. After treatment, he is sent home and does much better. However, his TV-watching behavior is strange. Which is the most likely behavior pattern?
*c. Malcolm thinks that last year’s episodes of his favorite series are new.
PSYC 2301 Practice Test 3
Study these questions. The correct answers are marked with an asterisk (*).
*c. “How many uses can you think of for a stapler?”
2. An example of Sternberg’s practical intelligence is ________.
*b. knowing when to plant corn
3. Young children sometimes literally interpret sentences like “Do you know where your mommy is?” by answering “Yes.” They failed to understand the ________ of the question.
*a. pragmatics
4. Which of the following statements about heredity and intelligence is TRUE?
*b. Differences in intelligence between identical twins must be due to differences in their environments.
5. What did Terman’s groundbreaking study of gifted children accomplish?
*a. It put to rest the myths that existed about genius in the early part of the twentieth century.
6. Researchers have found that, despite the number of color names in a language, the basic abilities to perceive color are unchanged. This finding would be troublesome for the theory of ________.
*b. Sapir and Whorf
7. A system for combining symbols so that an infinite number of meaningful statements can be made is called ________.
*b. language
8. Which of the following is suggested by your authors as helping to substantially improve cognitive health?
*a. physical exercise
9. The sentence, “Colorless ideas sleep furiously” has ________.
*a. proper syntax but poor semantics
10. An advantage of using a heuristic over an algorithm is ________.
*c. the heuristic can be quicker
11. Which was NOT a finding of the Terman and Oden (1947) study of gifted kids?
*c. They were clearly much more likely to be females.
12. A loose screw on the visor causes it to drop down while Ben drives; however, he keeps forgetting to take a screwdriver out to the car to fix it. When he notices the visor drop again, he reaches into his pocket for a dime he uses to tighten the screw holding the visor. What problem-solving difficulty did Ben overcome?
*b. functional fixedness
13. Researchers typically stress that a key aspect of intelligence is ________.
*c. the ability to adapt to new situations
14. A male has a defect in the X chromosome of the 23rd pair. As children, people with this syndrome experience symptoms that can range from mild to severe or even profound intellectual disability. This is known as ________.
*a. fragile X syndrome
15. Measuring intelligence by testing is a rather new concept in the history of the world. The idea of such testing came from ________.
*a. France
16. A theory of intelligence with nine components was postulated by ________.
*a. Gardner
17. What three types of intelligence constitute Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence?
*c. analytical, creative, and practical
18. Charles Spearman believed that intelligence is composed of ________.
*c. general intelligence and specific abilities
19. Alfred Binet designed the first ________ test.
*d. intelligence
20. A group of psychologists reviews the literature on the heritability of intelligence. They conclude that most of the estimates indicate that ________ percent of intelligence is due to genetics.
*c. 50
21. Tim and Jim are identical twins who were raised apart. Ned and Ed are fraternal twins who were raised together. Which pair of twins will have more similar IQ scores, if either?
*a. Tim and Jim
22. Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of culture-fair tests?
*a. They should minimize or eliminate the use of language.
23. A person starts from one point and comes up with many different ideas or possibilities based on that point. The person is engaging in ________.
*d. divergent thinking
24. Poor nutrition and medical care, poor living conditions (older, cheaper buildings often have lead paint on the walls), and a lack of intellectual support, are thought to lead to ________.
*d. familial retardation
25. Let’s say we could teach a dolphin to understand the difference between the sentences “The parrot kissed the dolphin” and “The dolphin kissed the parrot.” If this were demonstrated, it might mean the dolphin had an understanding of ________.
*c. syntax
26. The semantics of the sentence “He ran” refer to its ________.
*b. meaning
27. Which example would most people take longest to identify as a fruit (even though it technically is a fruit)?
*d. olive 5
28. What type of thinking could be described as taking different directions in search of a variety of answers to a question?
*d. divergent
29. Which of these is an element of the formal definition of intellectual disability?
*a. adaptive behavior severely below a level appropriate for the person’s age
30. Jordan is a 10-year-old boy who has a mental age of 8 years. His IQ would be ________.
*a. 80
31. The trial-and-error method of solving problems is also known as ________.
*c. the mechanical solution
32. Kosslyn asked subjects if frogs have lips and a stubby tail. What did the subjects report?
*a. They visualized a frog, starting with the face (“no lips”) and mentally rotated the image to look for the stubby tail.
33. The basic meaningful units of any language are called ________.
*b. morphemes
34. Which of these is an element of the formal definition of intellectual disability?
*a. IQ approximately 2 standard deviations below the mean
35. Jane is 22 years old. For her job, she needs to take an intelligence test. Which would be the most appropriate test for her age group?
36. Compared to formal concepts learned in science and math, natural concepts tend to be ________.
*c. fuzzy with unclear boundaries
37. The correct formula for determining IQ as used in Terman’s development of the Stanford-Binet Test was ________.
*b. MA/CA × 100
38. All parents think their little kids are geniuses. However, to be classified as a genius, the IQ score must be above ________.
*c. 140-145
39. Which of these is one of Howard Gardner’s multiple intelligences?
*d. naturalistic
40. Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences divides intelligence into ________ independent abilities.
*d. nine
41. Don tells Ray that he wants to get a new sports car. Ray immediately understands why, because he is familiar with the common characteristics of sports cars and knows what makes them different from family cars. Ray is using mental categories called ________.
*b. concepts
42. The sounds t, th, and sh are ________.
*b. phonemes
43. According to Robert Sternberg, ________ is best described as “street smarts,” or the ability to use information to get along in life. People who have it know how to be tactful, how to manipulate situations to their advantage, and how to use inside information to increase their odds of success.
*c. practical
44. The system of rules that governs how we assign meaning to the morphemes we use is called ________.
*b. semantics
45. If intelligence is determined primarily by heredity, which pair should show the highest correlation between IQ scores?
*b. identical twins
46. Köhler demonstrated “Aha!” or insight behavior with ________.
*d. chimpanzees
47. A psychological test that measures what we intend it to measure is said to be ________.
*a. valid
48. In familial retardation, the degree of intellectual disability is typically ________.
*d. mild 8
49. Seventy percent of the students in a classroom are women and 30 percent are men. One student is described as ambitious, athletic, and assertive. Why are most people likely to think this description refers to a male student?
*b. They are using the representativeness heuristic.
50. According to Robert Sternberg, which type of intelligence is least likely to predict success in an academic environment?
*c. practical intelligence
51. Psychological tests that yield relatively consistent results are said to be ________.
*c. reliable
52. Which of these might be an example of a perceptual reasoning item on the Wechsler intelligence tests?
*d. using blocks to make a design like one shown in a picture
53. Riley has figured out how to unlock his bedroom door with a paper clip. What has he most likely overcome in his new use of the paper clip?
*a. functional fixedness
54. Most standardized tests of intelligence have a distribution of scores that ________.
*a. follows the normal curve
55. Which of the following activities/sports is noted by your textbook as having a concerning number of head injuries and concussions?
*d. cheerleading 9
56. People are termed gifted in terms of intelligence if their IQ is above ________.
*b. 130
57. When soldiers in the military sustain head injuries, there is a(n) ________% likelihood that these injuries would be categorized as moderate to severe.
*c. 50
58. What do we call the hypothesis that language influences what we think?
*c. the linguistic relativity hypothesis
59. The tendency to perceive and approach problems in the same ways that have worked in the past is called ________.
*a. mental set
60. On a newly developed IQ test, an individual scores at the 110 level on the first half of the test, and 150 on the second half of the test. What does this test appear to lack?
*a. reliability
61. Which of the following statements about gifted people is true?
*c. They are often skilled leaders.
62. Dallas is a 10-year-old boy who has a mental age of 10 years. His IQ would be ________.
*b. 100
63. Which of the following is NOT one of the three areas of intelligence described by Sternberg?
*b. exponential
64. Talia is looking for her cat by methodically searching each room and then closing the door. She is using what type of problem solving strategy?
*a. an algorithm
65. Criticisms of Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences include ________.
*d. the idea that these “skills” are not necessarily the same thing as what is meant by intelligence.
66. The first thing that comes to mind when asked to name an example from a category is called the ________.
*b. prototype
67. People began measuring intelligence through tests roughly________ years ago.
*b. 100
68. A seemingly arbitrary flash “out of the blue,” through which the solution to a problem suddenly becomes apparent to you, but you do not consciously know how you “figured it out,” is called ________.
*c. insight
69. What are the smallest units of meaning in a language?
*d. morphemes 11
70. According to Robert Sternberg, ________ intelligence is the ability to deal with new and different concepts and to come up with new ways of solving problems (divergent thinking, in other words).
*b. creative
71. Frank mistakenly believes that there are more words that begin with the letter “k” than there are with the letter “k” in the third position due to the ________.
*b. availability heuristic
72. The divergent thinking technique of starting with a central idea and drawing a “map” with lines from the center to other related ideas and then forming a mental image of the concepts and their connections is known as ________.
*d. mind or subject mapping
73. The rhythm and emphasis on each word is called ________.
*a. intonation
74. Like most characteristics of a population, WAIS-IV scores are distributed in a bell or normal curve. Which of the following is an accurate characteristic of those types of curves?
*b. Scores are clumped around the midpoint.
75. Gardner and his associates are known for proposing ________.
*c. the theory of multiple intelligences
76. The ability to learn from one’s experiences, and use resources effectively when faced with challenges or problems is the psychologist’s working definition of ________.
*d. intelligence 12
77. The practical aspects of communicating with others, or the social “niceties” of language, are referred to as ________.
*d. pragmatics
78. How many morphemes are there in the sentence “I wanted it”?
*a. four
79. Pragmatics are defined as ________.
*a. the practical aspects of communicating with others, or the social “niceties” of language
80. What percent of the population has an intelligence quotient below 100?
*b. 50 percent
81. ________ intelligence has been suggested by Goleman to be a more powerful influence on life than more traditional views.
*c. Emotional
82. What systematic problem-solving method guarantees a solution, provided that one exists?
*b. algorithmic method
83. An 8-year-old child who scored like an average 10-year-old on an intelligence test would have a mental age of ________ and an IQ of ________.
*d. 10; 125 13
84. Which of the following statements is true about infants?
*c. By the time they are 9 months old, they can recognize only the phonemes in the language they are being brought up in.
85. A group of businessmen and women get together to try to solve the problem of decreased sales of their company’s products. One of them suggests that they generate as many ideas as they can in a short period of time without being critical of any of them. This technique of stimulating divergent thinking is called ________.
*a. brainstorming
86. Jack, compared to most other people, appears to need a high level of arousal. He enjoys doing potentially life-threatening hobbies such as skydiving, swimming with sharks, and bungee jumping from bridges. Jack is likely to be ________.
*c. a sensation seeker
87. Which of the following examples best represents the Yerkes-Dodson Law?
*b. Dan plays his best games when they mean the most to the team and his arousal is moderately high.
88. Which statement about emotions would have most likely been made by William James?
*a. When something happens, your body reacts, then you experience an emotion.
89. Emotion has been defined as having three elements. Please identify which choice below is NOT one of the three elements.
*d. cognitive dissonance for the exhibited behavior 14
90. Seeing a snake, running away from it, and then becoming frightened is the sequence of events postulated by the ________ theory.
*c. James-Lange
91. Bill has felt isolated and an like “outsider” since coming to college for his freshman year. As a result, he decided to join a fraternity and was very excited when he was selected to pledge. According to Maslow, Bill may be attempting to meet the need of ________.
*b. belonging
92. Which of the following activities is inconsistent with drive-reduction theory?
*c. eating when you are not hungry
93. Which of the following behaviors is NOT an example of drive-reduction theory?
*d. going jogging when you are bored
94. In a study of the relationship between children’s food preferences and the use of cartoon characters for the marketing of food, which of the following was one of the foods that were studied?
*b. baby carrots
95. Bobby is a very active 5-year old compared to others in his class. He appears to seek a great deal of stimulation, and is very playful, curious, and explorative. Bobby’s seemingly unlearned motives, which are likely to increase stimulation, are called ________.
*c. stimulus motives
96. ________ can vary from culture to culture and are socially acceptable ways of showing emotion in public settings.
*c. Display rules
97. Paul Ekman and his colleagues gathered abundant evidence supporting the universality of ________ basic facial expressions of emotion.
*c. seven
98. According to the facial feedback hypothesis, when Jose complies with instructions to look angry, it is most likely that ________.
*c. his positive feelings will decrease
99. Hormones secreted by the pancreas after we begin to eat, which control fat levels, proteins, and carbohydrates, are called ________ and ________.
*a. insulin; glucagons
100. Thirst, sexual desire, and hunger are examples of ________ drives.
*a. primary
101. Which of the following is correct for people who are high in the need for achievement?
*b. They look for careers and hobbies that allow others to evaluate them.
102. According to Maslow, the motive of self-actualization makes one want ________.
*a. to fulfill one’s inborn potential
103. In a study of the relationship between children’s food preferences and the use of cartoon characters for the marketing of food, which of the following was one of the characters that were studied?
*d. Shrek 16
104. You are walking in the forest and see a bear. According to the Cannon-Bard theory, what happens next?
*c. You experience physiological changes and a feeling of fear simultaneously.
105. Which of the following statements would best be associated with Carol Dweck?
*b. Failure is a good way to learn.
106. The concept of “comfort food” suggests that eating ________.
*a. may be influenced by emotional factors
107. Maslow’s work has had an impact on the field of ________.
*b. management
108. As the week draws to a close, Nancy reviews the lessons she gave to her students, thinks about the papers she has graded and returned, and speculates on the exam that she wrote to give on Monday morning. Which stage of the GTD model is Nancy currently engaging in?
*d. fourth stage
109. Which statement about motivation is TRUE?
*a. Motivation energizes and directs behavior.
110. Which of the following is the correct order of the stages of the GTD method discussed in your chapter?
*d. Capture, Process, Organize, Complete, Do 17
111. Jerry gets a great deal of fulfillment out of visiting the new art exhibits at the museum in town. He usually visits each exhibit several times during a show and finds beauty in a variety of different types of art works. Jerry is likely to visit the new exhibits in an effort to meet a(n) ________ need.
*d. aesthetic
112. Which is the best explanation of the Cannon-Bard theory?
*d. Bodily arousal and emotional experience occur simultaneously.
113. One of the problems associated with asthma is that once patients experience difficulty breathing, they often make their symptoms worse by concentrating on them and/or worrying about them. Consequently, many doctors include relaxation exercises as part of a treatment program to prevent patients from making their asthmatic reactions worse. This example of how our awareness of physiological changes can influence or even cause subsequent emotions is most supportive of which of the following theories of emotion?
*c. James-Lange
114. The frequent finding that asthmatics often experience shortness of breath concurrently with tremendous anxiety is an example of how emotions and physiological symptoms often occur simultaneously. As such, it supports which of the following theories of emotion?
*c. Cannon-Bard
115. According to Carol Dweck, people with this type of control believe intelligence is changeable and can be shaped by experience.
*a. internal locus of control
116. Donald believes all the teaching in the world will not change the fact that he is stupid and of below average intelligence. According to Dweck, what locus of control does Donald have?
*d. external locus of control 18
117. Early in the twentieth century, William McDougal proposed that there were ________ human instincts.
*c. 18
118. Need for achievement is also referred to as ________.
*c. nAch
119. A psychologist who has studied emotions with Paul Ekman for decades is going to present a summary of the research. Which title might this psychologist consider?
*d. “How Facial Expressions Communicate Emotions”
120. Physical arousal has to be interpreted cognitively before it is experienced as a specific emotion, according to ________.
*d. Schachter and Singer
121. The Latin word meaning ________ connects both motive and emotion.
*b. “move”
122. The ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH) may be involved in ________.
*b. stopping the eating response
123. A stimulus motive is ________.
*a. unlearned
124. ________ is a state of tension resulting from the deprivation of physical needs, such as those for food and water.
*b. A drive
125. To explain the human universality and variability of emotions, Ekman and his associates ________.
*a. developed a concept of “display rules,” which are rules for emotional expression
126. Which two different terms best describe Schachter and Singer’s theory of emotion?
*c. arousal and context
127. According to cognitive-mediational theory, what is likely to influence an individual’s emotional experience?
*c. the interpretation of the environment
128. Monica put all her time and energy into getting into the acting club because her main goal in life “was to be a famous star!” Monica’s drive to be famous was a(n) ________ drive.
*c. acquired
129. According to the facial feedback hypothesis, when Noah complies with instructions to smile and look happy, it is most likely that ________.
*c. his positive feelings will increase
130. Extrinsic motivation is defined as ________.
*a. the pursuit of an activity for external reward
131. According to Abraham Maslow, developing one’s potential to its fullest extent results in ________.
*d. self-actualization
132. BMR stands for ________.
*b. basal metabolic rate
133. Schachter and Singer proposed that two things have to happen before emotion occurs:
*c. physical arousal; labeling
134. Which theory maintains that emotion is caused by the interaction of physiological changes and the cognitive labeling of the reason for the physical reaction?
*c. cognitive arousal theory
135. Lashley (1938) stated that the thalamus would have to be pretty sophisticated to make sense of all the possible emotions and relay them to the proper areas of the cortex and body. Which theory of emotion was Lashley criticizing?
*c. Cannon-Bard
136. Facial feedback hypothesis is defined as ________.
*a. the process by which the facial muscles send messages to the brain about the basic emotion being expressed
137. In the section “Three Types of Needs,” which of the following was NOT discussed by David McClelland?
*d. sex 21
138. One positive outcome of instinct approaches was ________.
*c. that psychologists were now forced to consider the effects of heredity on behavior
139. Salmon swimming upstream to spawn are an example of ________.
*c. instinct
140. Drives that are learned through experience are called ________ drives.
*c. acquired
141. ________ proposed that two things have to happen before emotion occurs: physical arousal and labeling.
*d. Schachter and Singer
142. Sydney said, “I don’t care much about my grades as long as I’m the most popular girl in the class!” What need is this?
*b. need for affiliation
143. Primary drives are caused by ________.
*c. stimuli within the body
144. “I think I’m afraid; therefore, I am afraid.” Name the theory of emotion that this statement characterizes.
*c. cognitive arousal theory
145. Although Kim just ate a huge meal and feels “stuffed,” the idea of a chocolate sundae is too good to pass up. Which motivational term explains the appeal of the sundae?
*a. incentive
146. In psychology, instinct approaches to motivation have faded because they lacked the goal of ________.
*b. explanation
147. Problematic functioning of which of the following hormones can lead to overeating?
*c. leptin
148. Jell-O uses the slogan, “There’s always room for Jell-O.” To which theory of motivation is this slogan most relevant?
*b. incentive
149. The part of the brain that seems to influence emotions such as fear and pleasure is the ________.
*c. amygdala
150. According to Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy, which needs must be met first?
*c. physiological
151. ________ consists of the physiological changes in the sex organs and reproductive system that occur during adolescence.
*d. Puberty 23
152. Which female sex organ or process is present at birth?
*c. vagina
153. Which of the following is immediately present to doctors and nurses when a baby is born?
*c. primary sexual characteristics
154. Female sex organs that are present at birth are called ________.
*a. primary sex characteristics
155. Johnny is taking a class in human sexuality, and he has been asked to make a list of body parts that would be considered primary sexual characteristics. Which of the following would NOT appear on that list?
*d. breasts
156. The growth spurt for girls typically begins at what age?
*c. 10-12
157. One example of a female secondary sex characteristic is __________.
*d. breast development
158. One secondary male sex characteristic is ________.
*b. an enlarged larynx
159. One secondary male sex characteristic is ________.
*b. a deepening voice
160. One secondary male sex characteristic is ________.
*b. facial and chest hair
161. Chastity and Shane are fraternal twins, born 17 minutes apart. They go through many of life’s trials and tribulations together, but if their developmental schedules hold true to average, Chastity will start going through her pubescent development approximately ________ her brother.
*a. 2 years earlier than
162. The growth spurt for boys typically begins at age ________.
*b. 12-14
163. The primary sex characteristics develop as ________.
*a. the fetus is growing in the womb, when the chromosomes of the 23rd pair cause the release of the proper hormones to stimulate the growth of the sex organs
164. The ________ system is to boys as the ________ system is to girls.
*a. Wolffian; Müllerian
165. Margot is pregnant with her first child, and she is deliriously happy! She and her husband have some tests taken, but before the doctor can come in and review the results, Jim sneaks a peek at the file with the test results. He sees that the baby has “two X chromosomes.” He looks at his wife and says:
*c. “Congratulations, honey, we’re having a girl!”
166. ________ is a biological phenomenon, while ________ is a psychological phenomenon.
*a. Sex; gender
167. Which of the following statements is true regarding the development of the sex organs in a baby?
*c. The first sex organs, which are the gonads, are undifferentiated in male and female fetuses for the first month of pregnancy.
168. Which hormone is the primary determinant of whether a baby will develop male or female external genitalia?
*c. testosterone
169. How many genes found on the Y chromosome trigger the testes to produce testosterone?
*a. 1
170. A person who is described as intersexed is ________.
*a. an individual who is born with ambiguous sex organs
171. Psychology has many terms for human sexuality concepts. What is an alternative term for hermaphroditism?
*c. intersex
172. A culture’s expectation of masculine and feminine behaviors can be defined as ________.
*c. gender roles
173. Expectations about the way men and women behave are called gender ________.
*a. roles
174. Fifteen year old Latisha feels that she has been a “boy trapped in a girl’s body” for as long as she can remember. She is learning about sexual reassignment surgery from her mother, who supports her daughter after taking her to a doctor who diagnosed her as having ________.
*b. gender dysphoria
175. Which of the following is the best description of a “winkte” individual?
*c. neither male nor female
176. Based on the studies of girls who were exposed to androgens before birth, which of the following statements is true?
*a. When these girls grew up, they became more typically “female” in their desire for marriage and motherhood.
177. According to research, infant girls who were exposed to androgens were found to be more likely to ________.
*b. be “tomboys” during their childhood, but ultimately grew up to be more “typically female” in adulthood and had a desire for marriage and motherhood.
178. When men and women view erotic pictures, the ________ are more strongly activated in men than women.
*c. amygdala and hypothalamus
179. Which term has the most negative connotation in our culture?
*b. sissy
180. Traditional views of gender roles are more likely found in ________.
*a. collectivist cultures
181. Which of the following is a valid concern with regard to treating boys and girls differently during their childhoods?
*a. Adults may grow to have different expectations about the abilities of boys and girls, and thus treat them in ways that either encourage or discourage certain skills.
182. Social ________ theory emphasizes the role of cognition in motivation and the importance of expectations in shaping behavior.
*c. learning
183. When children observe their same-sex parents behaving in certain ways and imitate that behavior, a psychologist uses which theory to explain the situation?
*d. social learning theory
184. Sue sees her mother knitting a sweater. Later, Sue takes out a ball of yarn and some knitting needles from her mother’s supplies and tries to do the same. This is a good example of the ________ of gender development.
*d. social learning theory
185. Gender schema theory is based on ________.
*b. Piaget’s theory of development
186. “Children observe the world around them and develop mental concepts to represent the concepts of male and female. They then develop a concept of their own gender, and adjust their behaviors to be consistent with that concept.” This statement is the foundation of ________ theory.
*a. gender schema
187. Shaquilla says that all men are insensitive and unemotional. She is probably expressing a ________.
*a. gender stereotype
188. At a recent viewing of the latest Hollywood blockbuster, LaToya and Ronald shared an awkward moment. LaToya, deeply moved by the story line, began to cry during the movie, while Ronald sat twiddling his thumbs wondering when the movie would finally be over. Afterward, while they were discussing their different reactions, Ronald said, “Well, girls always cry at sappy movies. That’s why guys really hate those kinds of shows.” Ronald is demonstrating that he holds very deep gender ________.
*a. stereotypes
189. A gender ________ refers to a widely held belief about a person or group of people that is based solely on gender.
*a. stereotype
190. Which characteristic is NOT usually considered part of the male gender stereotype?
*d. emotional
191. Desperate for help with her computer, Dana calls her fiancé, thinking that he will know what to do because he is a man, and men are natural fixers. Dana’s thinking in this instance is an example of ________.
*c. benevolent sexism
192. Some people are very quick to come to the aid of a woman because she is perceived as being helpless, weak, and unable to provide for herself. These same individuals may be quite a bit less likely to come to the assistance of a man in the same situation. Though these people may have noble intentions, this is still an example of ________ sexism.
*c. benevolent
193. The acceptance of positive stereotypes regarding gender can lead to ________.
*c. benevolent sexism
194. Psychologist Sandra Bem developed the concept of ________.
*a. androgyny
195. Researchers have found that when traditional males, traditional females, and androgynous people are compared in terms of their degree of depression, androgynous people are usually ________.
*a. less depressed
196. John lost his job as a steelworker. However, when seeking new employment, he considers a wide variety of jobs, such as fighter pilot, teacher, and nurse. Given these choices, a psychologist like Bem might consider John to be ________.
*d. androgynous
197. Which of the following statements has research found to be accurate with regard to androgynous people?
*c. They are highly functioning and effective because they do not limit themselves to one set of gender rules.
198. Recent studies have shown that cognitive differences between boys and girls ________.
*b. are decreasing
199. If gender differences in cognition are decreasing, this is probably due to ________.
*c. the effects of more equal treatment of men and women in our society
200. MRI technology has demonstrated that women listen with ________ of the brain.
*c. both hemispheres
201. Women may pay more attention to the tone and emotion of statements than men because they listen with ________ of the brain.
*c. both hemispheres
202. John is a stay-at-home dad. Today he is with a group of stay-at-home moms as they all watch their kids play. What topic of conversation would be LEAST successful for John to bring up in order to stimulate the discussion?
*d. current events
203. At the time Masters and Johnson did their groundbreaking research on sexual responses, society mostly thought that ________.
*d. sexuality was a relatively forbidden topic
204. Equipment to measure physiological activity during sexual activity was designed by ________.
*d. Masters and Johnson
205. The four stages of sexual activity include excitement, plateau, orgasm and ________.
*d. resolution
206. Javier and his wife are preparing to have sex. His penis becomes erect and his testes “pull up.” He is likely to be in the ________ stage of the sexual response cycle according to Masters and Johnson.
*d. excitement 31
207. Steve’s penis is becoming even more erect and has secreted a few drops of fluid after beginning to have sex. He is likely to be in the ________ stage of the sexual response cycle, according to Masters and Johnson.
*b. plateau
208. The final phase of the sexual response cycle is ________.
*d. resolution
209. In which phase does the refractory period occur for men?
*d. resolution
210. Dante’s penis has experienced contractions and is about to release semen. He is likely to be in the ________ stage of the sexual response cycle, according to Masters and Johnson.
*c. orgasm
211. Ben has finished having sex and has lost his erection, and his scrotal sac has begun to thin again. He is likely to be in the ________ stage of the sexual response cycle, according to Masters and Johnson.
*a. resolution
212. One seemingly amazing aspect of Masters and Johnson’s research program concerning human sexual response was ________.
*c. that they were able to convince the press to keep the research secret for a long period of time
213. The first systematic surveys of sexual behavior were conducted in the 1950s by ________.
*c. Alfred Kinsey
214. Kinsey believed that ________.
*b. sexual orientation was on a continuum
215. According to Kinsey, what percentage of women reported bisexual experiences?
*b. less than 20 percent
216. The first large-scale study of human behavior to be done after the Kinsey and Masters and Johnson reports was conducted by ________.
*a. Janus and Janus
217. Sexual ________ refers to enduring sexual attraction toward members of one’s own sex, the other sex, or both.
*a. orientation
218. Which is the most socially acceptable form of sexual behavior in most cultures?
*c. heterosexuality
219. Raphael has only dated men in the past. He stated that in high school, he began to notice that he was only attracted to men. As a result, he has been in a relationship with a man for the past 5 years and is very happy. Raphael is considered ________ in terms of his sexual orientation.
*a. homosexual
220. Lance is in the 12th grade and is presently dating the head cheerleader, Ava. Lance is attracted to Ava, who is very feminine in her mannerisms, and Lance reports that he is attracted to girls who are petite and athletic. He and his buddies like to go “cruising for girls” on the weekends, but he has never strayed from Ava and is thinking about proposing to her after they graduate. He has never been attracted to any other boys. Lance is considered ________ in terms of his sexual orientation.
*b. heterosexual
221. According to research, the majority of gay or bisexual college men report they first became aware of their sexual orientation in ________.
*a. junior high or high school
222. According to the results of research involving twins and family members, which of the following has been suggested?
*c. Genes may play at least some role in determining a person’s sexual orientation.
223. What have twin studies told us about sexual orientation?
*c. Although supporting a genetic influence on sexual orientation, they do not rule out environmental influences as a contributor.
224. Hamer and colleagues discovered that homosexuality may be transmitted by genes on the ________ chromosome, which is passed from mother to son, not father to son.
*a. X
225. Johnny is a gay man who has a wonderful relationship with his sister. He regularly babysits for her children, and enjoys helping to raise them. Johnny’s availability to help with the kids, and his interest in doing so, supports the ________ hypothesis of homosexuality.
*d. kin selection
226. A sexual ________ is a problem with sexual functioning, or the actual physical workings of the sex act.
*a. dysfunction
227. Sexual problems that result from physical causes are referred to as ________.
*b. organic dysfunctions
228. ________ is a disorder in which the person either prefers to, or must, achieve sexual arousal and fulfillment through sexual behavior that is unusual or not socially acceptable.
*d. A paraphilia
229. The abbreviation STI stands for ________.
*d. sexually transmitted infection
230. Which cause of a sexually transmitted disease is hardest to treat?
*c. viral
231. Warty growths on the genitalia are caused by ________.
*a. human papillomavirus (HPV)
232. A foul-smelling, cloudy discharge from the penis and burning upon urination are symptomatic of ________.
*c. gonorrhea
233. Which of the following is caused by a virus?
*a. AIDS
234. AIDS can be transmitted through ________.
*a. blood, vaginal fluid, semen, and breast milk
235. AIDS CANNOT be transmitted through ________.
*c. tears
236. You overhear a psychologist presenting a lecture to an introductory psychology class. The teacher mentions “purposeful or goal-directed behavior that may vary in intensity from one occasion to another.” You recognize that he is talking about which type of behavior?
*a. motivated
237. Intrinsic motivation is one that propels a person to pursue an activity ________.
*b. for its own sake
238. In the early twentieth century, psychologists were inclined to explain motivated behavior by attributing it to ________.
*d. instincts
239. Early in the twentieth century, William McDougal and others proposed that motivation was a result of ________.
*a. instincts
240. An instinct is a tendency that is ________.
*c. biological
241. Drives serve to activate responses that are aimed at reducing the drive, thereby returning the body to a more normal state called ________.
*c. homeostasis
242. nAch is an abbreviation for ________.
*b. need for achievement
243. Ethan is an award-winning swimmer. His desire to compete and win is part of his need for ________.
*d. achievement
244. According to Carol Dweck, this type of person believes that intelligence is fixed, unchanging, and independent.
*d. external locus of control
245. The Yerkes-Dodson Law says ________.
*a. performance is affected by levels of arousal
246. Things that attract or lure people to action are ________.
*b. incentives
247. What is one of the criticisms of Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?
*d. Some people who struggle with lower needs may still satisfy higher needs.
248. Which of the following is a criticism of Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?
*d. There is a lack of scientific support.
249. Obesity is defined as the condition of being at least _____ percent over the ideal body weight.
*b. 20
250. According to Ekman, which of the following is NOT one of the universal facial expressions?
*d. shame
251. Which of the following individuals is from a culture that has strict public social display rules?
*c. Miyoki, who is Japanese
252. What is the correct sequence of events in emotional response according to the Cannon-Bard theory?
*d. stimulus –> emotion AND physiological changes (simultaneous)
253. According to the cognitive arousal theory of emotions, appraisal of the situation would come ________ the physical arousal and ________ the experience of emotion.
*c. before; before
254. You just finished a cup of very strong coffee, which causes your body to have a general feeling of arousal. That afternoon, you walk past a cemetery where several people are crying at a graveside. According to Schachter and Singer, which of the following would most likely occur?
*c. Your emotion would be sad, since the context would affect your labeling.
255. Which is an example of facial feedback hypothesis?
*c. making yourself smile, then finding that your mood is more positive
PSYC 2301 Practice Test 4
1. Kirima has earned her doctorate in health psychology. Which of the following research questions might she be most likely to investigate?
*a. Why are college students more prone to doing drugs when they take harder classes?
undergraduate degree?
2. Steven doesn’t think that his actions will help change his stressful job. Instead, he adopts the “Smile—the world looks brighter when you do!” coping style to deal with his stress. He is using what type of coping style?
*a. emotion-focused
3. Which of the following is one of the ways in which religion helps people reduce or cope with stress?
*a. Religion can provide a strong social support system.
4. Which of the following is one reason why living in poverty is stressful?
*c. increased rates of disabilities due to poor prenatal care
5. Which Type A personality characteristic is the key trait that is linked to heart disease?
*a. hostility
6. During the alarm stage of the general adaptation syndrome, ________.
*c. the sympathetic nervous system is activated and adrenal glands release hormones
7. Researchers have found an association between daily hassles and ________.
*a. colds and headaches
8. The first response that people typically make to frustration is ________.
*a. persistence
9. An urgent demand or expectation for our behavior that comes from an outside source is called:
*b. pressure
10. One contributing factor for the increasing rise of road rage is ________.
*b. overcrowding
11. After we have decided that a certain event is a stressor, we must decide how we will deal with it and what resources are available for coping with the stressor. This process is called ________.
*b. secondary appraisal
12. Which of the following is NOT an example of an external frustration?
*a. uncontrollability
13. Which of the following is a mental series of exercises meant to refocus attention and achieve a trance-like state of consciousness?
*a. meditation
14. Which part of the nervous system reacts when the human body is subjected to stress?
*c. sympathetic
15. When the teacher was handing out this test, you noticed that your respiration rate and heartbeat increased, your palms got sweaty, and your hand shook a little. Your pretest behaviors were triggered by the ________. Upon completion of the exam, your body returned to its normal state by way of the ________.
*b. sympathetic nervous system; parasympathetic nervous system
16. Levon has a Type B personality. Which of the following is most likely?
*d. Levon is slow to anger.
17. According to some studies, people who have religious commitments are more likely to ________.
*c. live longer than do those who do not have religious beliefs
18. Actions meant to harm or destroy are referred to as ________.
*d. aggression
19. Joey put a quarter in the gumball machine only to find that the machine was not working. He continued to turn the dial on the machine in the hope that he would retrieve a gumball. Joey’s behavior is called ________.
*a. persistence
20. ________ psychology is the field of study devoted to understanding the relationship between physical activities, psychological traits, and social relationships and overall health and rates of illness.
*c. Health
21. Jordan is very frustrated because another patron at the bar is talking to the woman with whom Jordan was just dancing. According to Berkowitz’s reformulation of the frustration-aggression hypothesis, which of the following factors makes Jordan unlikely to lash out in a physically aggressive manner?
*b. The other man is much larger and clearly stronger than Jordan.
22. A person in the ________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome may feel better, even though he or she continues to secrete hormones to help the body fight a stressor.
*b. resistance
23. People who respond to life events with a laid back, relaxed, easygoing attitude, and are slow to anger are said to have a ________ personality.
*c. Type B
24. Jacinta finds applying for graduate school to be frustrating. She believes that the entire process is random. As such, this example highlights the role of ________ in coping.
*a. uncontrollability
25. Seira is very pleasant and likes to keep the peace. She finds it difficult to express emotions and internalizes her anger. She has few friends and spends a lot of time alone. According to research, Seira ________.
*d. is a Type C personality
26. Which of the following methods of acculturation will likely result in a moderate degree of acculturative stress?
*a. completely adopting the values and customs of the new culture
27. In which stage of the general adaptation syndrome has the body reached the limits of its ability to adapt to stress, which may result in the development of stress-related diseases?
*c. exhaustion
28. Coping strategies can be either ________-focused or ________-focused in nature.
*a. problem; emotion
29. Which of the following is the type of conflict that occurs when a person must choose or not choose one goal or event that has both positive and negative aspects?
*a. approach-avoidance
30. Lizzie is a freshman in college who needs to declare her major. She is interested in history, psychology, medicine, and law. As she thinks about each of these potential majors, she considers both the positive and negative aspects of each, which cause her to go back and forth in her decision. Lizzie is
experiencing a(n) ________ conflict.
*d. multiple approach-avoidance
31. Which parts of the nervous system are associated with the general adaptation syndrome?
*c. sympathetic and parasympathetic
32. Research shows that ________ lowers blood pressure in those observed.
*b. concentrative meditation
33. Joey put a quarter in the gumball machine, only to find that the machine was not working. He continued to turn the dial on the machine in hope that he would retrieve a gumball. Unfortunately, after several minutes of forcefully turning the dial, he still did not retrieve a gumball. As a result, he kicked the machine several times. Kicking the machine is an example of ________.
*d. aggression 6
34. The method in which the minority person tries to maintain a sense of original cultural identity, while also trying to form a positive relationship with members of the dominant culture, is called ________.
*a. integration
35. A conflict in which a person must choose between two undesirable routes to a goal or goals is called ________.
*b. avoidance-avoidance
36. The stress resulting from the need to change and adapt to the dominant, or majority, culture is called ________.
*a. acculturative stress
37. Vanna’s mother is ill and Vanna is feeling overwhelmed and sad. To cope with this stress of her mother’s illness, Vanna has been writing her feelings down in a journal. Vanna is using ________.
*b. emotion-focused coping
38. Researchers conducted a study to determine the effects of stress on the immune system by measuring immune system chemicals. To accomplish this goal, they compared college students who were undergoing a stressful series of exams to a group of similar students relaxing during a time of no classes and no exams. The results of this study indicate that ________.
*b. the exam group tested lower for immune system chemicals
39. Pepe moved from Argentina to France. He chose not to learn to speak and write French, continues to maintain his old culture’s styles of dress and customs, and lives in a neighborhood where only people from Argentina live. Pepe has used which method of entering the majority culture?
*c. separation
40. When looking at a glass that is neither completely full nor completely empty, a(n) ________ might say “that glass is half full,” while a(n) ________ might say “no, that glass is half empty!”
*d. optimist; pessimist
41. Sasha is experiencing stress in her workplace that is causing her to feel dissatisfied and pessimistic. As a result, she has a desire to quit her job. Sasha is experiencing ________.
*d. burnout
42. Membership in a religious organization and regular attendance at religious functions ________.
*a. can be a vital part of a person’s social support system
43. The most extreme form of escape or withdrawal from frustration is ________.
*a. suicide
44. Research on the effects of stress on the immune system suggests which of the following?
*d. Suppression of immune system functioning by stress can apparently continue even after the stress itself is over.
45. The ________ measures the amount of stress in a college student’s life resulting from major life changes.
*d. College Undergraduate Stress Scale (CUSS)
46. Which of the following is the term used to describe unpredictable, large-scale events that create a great deal of stress and feelings of threat?
*b. catastrophes
47. In a(n) ________ conflict, a person must choose between two desirable goals.
*c. approach-approach
48. A person who is ambitious, time conscious, extremely hardworking, easily annoyed, and tends to have high levels of hostility and anger is said to be exhibiting a ________ personality.
*a. Type A
49. Saadat is walking to the front of the classroom in preparation for his class presentation. He notices his heart starts to beat fast, his palms are sweaty, and he has a general sense of increase in energy. According to the general adaptation syndrome, which phase of the stress response is he in?
*a. alarm phase
50. Imagine that you have just flunked a class. You evaluate this situation and decide that flunking a class is stressful and important enough to be upset about. Next, you decide to repeat the class in summer school. You have made ________.
*b. both a primary and a secondary appraisal
51. According to a recent study, what is the biggest hassle reported by children between the ages of 11 and 15?
*a. feeling pressure to use drugs
52. Which external factors might increase the likelihood of experiencing high levels of stress according to your textbook?
*b. noisy environments
53. ________ occurs when people experience unpleasant stressors.
*c. Distress
54. Bettina is 6 feet tall and desires to become a ballerina. Unfortunately, she is having difficulty being accepted into a ballet troupe because of her height. Bettina is experiencing ________.
*d. internal frustration
55. People living under stressful conditions tend to get sick more often than they would otherwise. How do researchers in psychoneuroimmunology explain this phenomenon?
*a. The stress response reduces immune system functioning, thus making us more vulnerable to diseases.
56. Fabiana is beginning to realize that so-called “surprise quizzes” in her math class really aren’t too much of a surprise at all, since they tend to occur every week. Accordingly, she accepts that fact and regularly reviews the course material. This example best illustrates that ________.
*d. events beyond our control can still be predictable
57. ________ is the optimal amount of stress that people need to promote health and well-being.
*b. Eustress
58. During the alarm stage of the general adaptation syndrome, all of the following EXCEPT ________ are reactions that can be seen.
*d. hemorrhaging
59. Which of the following statements is NOT true about hassles at different developmental stages?
*b. Younger adults are more strongly affected by hassles such as going shopping, doctor’s appointments, and bad weather than are elderly people.
60. An assessment that measures the amount of stress in a person’s life resulting from major life changes over one year is called the ________.
*c. Social Readjustment Rating Scale
61. Frustration that occurs when a goal or need cannot be attained due to personal characteristics is called ________.
*d. personal frustration
62. Which of the following is the most stressful of all conflicts, causing many people to go back and forth between one decision and the other, or be unable to decide for or against the event?
*a. approach-avoidance
63. After weeks of being taunted by her so-called “friends” at school and asking them to stop taunting her, Alyssa begins to actively avoid them whenever possible. Her reaction to this frustration is best described as ________.
*c. withdrawal
64. The field of ________ studies the effects of psychological factors such as stress, emotions, thinking, and behavior on the immune system.
*c. psychoneuroimmunology
65. For someone who likes both movies and concerts, choosing between going to one or the other represents an ________ conflict.
*c. approach-approach
66. The system of cells, organs, and chemicals of the body that responds to attacks from diseases and injuries is called the ________.
*a. immune system
67. Desiring to purchase a book and finding that it is out of stock is an example of a(n) ________.
*a. external frustration
68. Since Melinda is attempting to make a difficult choice as whether to file for divorce, she is probably experiencing ________.
*b. conflict
69. According to the work of ________ and colleagues, optimistic thinking is a good thing!
*a. Seligman
70. Bluma hates making decisions, especially about things she does not like. Her mom wants her to either mow the lawn or clean her room this weekend. This is an example of ________ conflict.
*a. avoidance-avoidance
71. In a recent study, researchers questioned middle-aged men about stress, diet, and lifestyle factors. They were also examined for four biological risk factors for heart disease, including obesity, high blood sugar, high triglycerides, and low levels of HDL. As a result of this study, which of the following were strongly linked to the four biological risk factors?
*a. The more stress these men were exposed to, the more likely they were to have these risk factors.
72. Which of the following methods of acculturation will most likely result in the highest degree of acculturative stress?
*c. rejecting the majority culture’s ways and maintaining one’s original cultural identity 73. Working a second job to pay off credit cards is an example of ________.
*a. problem-focused coping
74. Tad seems to thrive when faced with difficult challenges and usually feels in control of his life. He would probably be labeled a ________ personality.
*d. hardy
75. ________ are habitual targets of displaced aggression.
*a. Scapegoats
76. Research suggests that as little as ________ minutes of meditation can produce lowered blood pressure in those with hypertension.
*a. 20
77. Kim is Vietnamese. Currently she is experiencing stress due to juggling many roles, such as taking care of her children, working full-time, coping with financial difficulties, and attending night school. Kim’s culture suggests which of the following to help cope with these many stressors?
*a. consulting a fortune-teller
78. ________ people typically do not live as long as the average life expectancy.
*a. Aggressive
79. All of the following are sources of stress EXCEPT________.
*d. aggression 13
80. ________ is the term used to describe the excessive anger exhibited by drivers in response to ordinary traffic frustration.
*a. Road rage
81. When faced with an approach-avoidance conflict, some people tend to go back and forth with their choice because they cannot decide for or against the goal or event. This mind-changing behavior is called ________.
*a. vacillating
82. According to research discussed in your textbook, becoming a more optimistic thinker begins with:
*c. suppressing parasympathetic nervous responses.
83. Which of the following methods of acculturation will most likely result in the lowest degree of acculturative stress?
*d. developing a new set of values that is a compromise between the old and the new cultures
84. The ________ nervous system returns the body to normal, day-to-day functioning after a stressful period.
*a. parasympathetic
85. Which part of the body clears fat and cholesterol from the bloodstream, preventing clogged arteries and reducing the likelihood of heart attacks and strokes?
*c. the liver
86. The main advantage of personality inventories over projective tests and interviews is _____________.
*a. inventories are standardized
87. Unconditional positive regard is MOST important to the theory of ______.
*d. Rogers
88. Frank and Gina are looking at an abstract painting in a museum. Gina describes objects and people she thinks she sees in the painting. Frank says, “It’s a bunch of paint thrown on a canvas.” Gina responds, “No, there is so much here that you just don’t see.” During lunch, they agree that their experience reminds them of what concept they learned in introductory psychology?
*c. projective testing
89. According to Freud, personality develops through a series of psychosexual stages. During infancy, the psychosexual stage is called the _____________.
*b. oral stage
90. The _____________ theory of personality has its basis in the theories of learning, and focuses on the effects of environment on one’s personal characteristics and actions.
*d. behaviorist
91. According to Freud, rationality, logical thinking, and reasoning are controlled by the ______.
*b. ego
92. According to Carl Rogers, anxiety and neurotic behaviors occur when _______.
*c. there is a discrepancy between the real self and ideal self
93. Personality assessments conducted by behaviorists rely primarily on ____________.
*b. direct observation
94. You are reading an article that critiques Freud’s theory. Which of the following could be the title?
*b. “Never Use the Dreams of Sexually Frustrated Rich Women as a Basis for a Theory”
95. Ruth-Ann just graduated from high school; she is trying out for the soccer team at the college that she will attend in the fall. She knows that it will be more competitive than her high school team, but she believes in her ability to succeed and plans to practice all summer. Bandura would say that Ruth might have an edge over some competitors simply because she has ________.
*a. high self-efficacy
96. A person’s responses to a projective test are thought to reflect ____________.
*d. unconscious thoughts and feelings
97. Ellen has been described as creative, imaginative, curious, artistic, and nonconforming. She is likely to obtain an elevated score on a questionnaire designed to measure ______________.
*d. openness
98. When Freud referred to the sexual drive of babies and young children, to what was he really referring?
*b. the fact that children focus on their bodies to give them physical pleasure
99. Freud’s refusal to believe his patients who said they were sexually molested as children is an example of _________.
*c. interviewer bias
100. Anthony is sick of writing papers and studying for tests, but he knows he needs a college degree if he wants to be successful in his chosen career. So every morning Anthony gives himself a dressing down—in essence, yelling at himself—to make himself get out of bed and go to classes, and every evening he does the same thing to get himself to do his work. According to Freud, which personality structure is in control here?
*d. superego
101. What is the correct sequence of Freud’s psychosexual stages?
*d. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital
102. An individual operating on the reality principle seeks ____________.
*d. rational means for obtaining gratification
103. Carolyn took home some printer paper from the office. Later, she felt guilty for stealing it, so she brought some paper to work to replace what she took. Freud would suggest that Carolyn’s ________ was influencing her motives and behavior.
*d. superego
104. Which of these is an acronym that could help you remember the Big Five traits?
105. Tony has devised a test in which people look at clouds and talk about what they see. What type of test would psychologists call this?
*b. projective
106. One of the main differences between the psychoanalytic view and the social cognitive view is that ________________.
*a. the social cognitive view allows for testing, whereas the psychoanalytic view does not
107. The ego operates according to the ______.
*b. reality principle
108. Shanda is afraid of failing one of her final exams, primarily because she thinks the professor gives hard exams and so, no matter how much studying she does, it won’t matter. Cognitive theorists would suggest that Shanda:
*a. has an external locus of control.
109. Mahmoud was just told that his father has cancer. Mahmoud’s first response is that there must be a mistake and he demands that the doctor repeat his tests. Which defense mechanism is at work here?
*b. denial
110. Interviews in which the interviewer asks questions about any material that comes up and asks follow-up questions whenever appropriate are known as ______ interviews.
*a. unstructured
111. Which of the following is NOT one of the layers of consciousness proposed by Sigmund Freud?
*b. conscience
112. Which of the following was not a facet of Bandura’s theory of reciprocal determinism?
*a. feelings of inferiority
113. Dan plays the trumpet, is on the debate team, bites his nails, and chews gum. Freud might say Dan was fixated in the ________ stage.
*a. oral
114. Jessie becomes furious when her favorite hockey player is intentionally hurt by an opponent. According to Freud’s model of the mind, her id would unconsciously say:
*d. “I’m so angry I could kill that player!”
115. Donita is angry with her boss, so she left work a little early in order to run an extra mile before it gets dark. Which defense mechanism is Donita employing?
*d. sublimation
116. One limitation of the trait perspective compared to the other perspectives is there is not much ________.
*d. explanation
117. For Freud, the only personality structure present at birth is the ______.
*a. id
118. Cheri went to see a psychologist, who showed her several detailed black and white pictures and asked her to explain what was going on in them. The psychologist was using the ________.
*a. TAT
119. What do Abraham Maslow’s and Carl Rogers’s theories have in common?
*c. They believe that each human being is free to choose his or her own destiny.
120. Raymond Cattell originally proposed that there are ________ personality source traits.
*d. 16 19
121. When assessing personality, many psychologists take the eclectic view, which means they ________.
*b. use a variety of approaches
122. A baseball player’s son is quite talented; he has received lots of awards over the years. When he gets up to bat, he expects to get a hit, and when he is in the field, he expects to make every catch. According to Bandura, what characteristic does this young man seem to have?
*c. self-efficacy
123. According to Freud’s theory of personality development, there are ________ stages that each person must pass through.
*b. 5
124. Cattell used the statistical technique called _______.
*d. factor analysis
125. The pleasure principle is associated with which element of Freud’s personality theory?
*a. id
126. Research on _____________ supports the hypothesis that personality differences are due in part to genetic differences.
*a. the heritability of traits
127. When one thinks of “value judgment” in relation to personality, one is thinking about ____________.
*b. character
128. Which term was given to psychoanalysts who broke away from strict interpretation of Freud’s theory and developed theories of their own that were based upon Freud’s work?
*c. neo-Freudians
129. Which of the following statements is a claim often made by critics of projective testing?
*a. The interpretation of projective tests is too subjective.
130. Sigmund Freud proposed that his patients’ disorders resulted most often from psychological conflicts related to ______________.
*a. sex
131. For Freud, ideas, thoughts, and feelings of which we are currently aware are in the ______ mind.
*d. conscious
132. There were three friends. Maybe you’ve heard of them! Harry was rational, logical, and cunning. Hermione was rule-oriented, moral, and always ethical. Ron was pleasure seeking, found it hard to delay gratification, and usually just did what he wanted. According to Freud, Harry was mostly ____________.
*b. ego
133. For the behaviorist, personality is a set of learned responses or _______.
*d. habits
134. The age at which a baby was weaned would have the most impact on the ____ stage.
*a. oral
135. What are the Big Five personality traits?
*b. openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism
136. Jerod has saved plenty of money and has a lucrative business that he enjoys. He likes to volunteer his time in the community and enjoys the company of others—but still saves time to be alone. One of his favorite things to do in the evening is sit outside and watch the sunset. Carl Rogers might suggest that Jerod is ________.
*c. self-actualizing
137. Which of the following is considered to be an individualistic culture?
*d. Great Britain
138. Sigmund Freud’s theory came at a time in history when the predominant attitude toward sex was _____________.
*c. repressed
139. For Freud, the mind is divided into ______ levels.
*c. three
140. A relatively consistent characteristic that exists across situations is called ________.
*a. a personality trait
141. Carl Jung’s term for the part of our personality that Freud referred to as the unconscious was the _____________.
*a. personal unconscious
142. According to Freud, the second part of the personality is the ego, which gets its name from the Latin word for __________.
*c. “I”
143. Which of Freud’s psychosexual stages is marked by successful formation of mature sexual relationships?
*d. genital
144. Which theory of personality was a direct reaction against the psychoanalytic and behaviorist perspectives?
*a. humanistic perspective
145. The tendency to form a favorable or unfavorable impression of someone at the first meeting is called the _____________.
*c. halo effect
146. “If it feels good, do it” best describes the ______________.
*a. id
147. A patient waiting for an appointment with Sigmund Freud looks around the room to see who else is waiting. Who among the following is most likely to have been one of Freud’s patients?
*c. Sue, a wealthy woman who is suffering from sexual repression
148. Which element in Freud’s personality theory contains the conscience?
*c. superego
149. Which personality test relies on the interpretation of inkblots to understand personality?
*d. Rorschach
150. Which theories are less concerned with the explanation of personality development and changing personality than they are with describing personality and predicting behavior based on that description?
*a. trait theories
151. The unique and relatively stable ways in which each individual thinks, acts, and feels is called __________.
*a. personality
152. In Sigmund Freud’s theory, the _______ operates according to the pleasure principle.
*a. id
153. A personality that consisted of only the ego and the id would be completely ______.
*d. amoral
154. According to Freud, a boy’s sexual attachment to his mother and jealousy of his father is called _______.
*a. the Oedipus complex
155. The Freudian stage in which boys must resolve the Oedipus complex is the ______ stage.
*c. phallic
156. According to Freud, the stage in which children develop a marked attachment to the parent of the opposite sex and become jealous of the same-sex parent is the ______.
*d. phallic stage
157. Jill is an 8-year-old girl who is having a birthday party. According to Freud, since Jill is in the latency period, whom would you expect to be at her party?
*a. mostly girls
158. Who of the following was NOT a neo-Freudian?
*b. Rogers
159. According to Karen Horney, what causes us to develop a neurotic personality?
*b. being raised without love, affection, and security
160. Which neo-Freudian theorist believed social relationships were the key to understanding personality?
*d. Erik Erikson
161. Your teacher organizes a debate on Freudian theory. You are assigned to be on the anti-Freud side and, therefore, must point out problems in the theory. Which of the following will be at the top of your list?
*b. Psychodynamic concepts are difficult to test.
162. The textbook suggests that Freudian theory, though controversial, has had an impact on many things seen in today’s society. Which of the following is NOT cited by the book as having been influenced by Freud?
*c. professional sports
163. Skinner and Watson believed that personality is the result of:
*b. classical and operant conditioning and observational learning.
164. According to Albert Bandura, a person’s belief about his or her skills and ability to perform certain behaviors is known as ________.
*a. self-efficacy
165. _____________ theory is called the “third force” in personality theory.
*d. Humanistic
166. When you accept someone—faults and all—regardless of whether or not you like the individual or approve of his or her lifestyle, Rogers suggests that you are exhibiting ________.
*b. unconditional positive regard
167. Travis is a participant in the X-Games every year, which features events that are high flying and exhilarating to watch or participate in, but also very dangerous to the competitors. Because Travis is willing to take chances with his health to get the adrenaline rush from these sorts of events, Cost and McCrae would argue that he ranks high on which of the five factors?
*a. openness
168. Which of the following is correct concerning cross-cultural studies on trait theories?
*c. Evidence for the five trait dimensions has been found in several cultures.
169. Monozygotic twins are __________, while dizygotic twins are __________.
*d. identical; fraternal 26
170. Which of the following choices describes the cultural personality of the United States?
*a. individualistic
171. What is the branch of psychology that is concerned with the study of abnormal behavior?
*b. psychopathology
172. Archaeologists have found skulls from as long ago as 3000 B.C. that bear evidence of an ancient surgical technique, in which holes were cut into the skulls of live individuals in an attempt to release demons from the possessed victim. This process is called __________.
*a. trephining
173. Hippocrates maintained that mental illness was __________.
*d. caused by imbalances of vital body fluids
174. Which of the following is one definition of abnormal behavior?
*a. behavior that is rare
175. What is the primary difficulty with applying the criterion of “social norm deviance” to define abnormal behavior?
*c. Behavior that is considered disordered in one culture may be acceptable in another.
176. The social or environmental setting of a person’s behavior is referred to as _________.
*a. the situational context
177. You are a psychologist who is evaluating the behavior of a new client. The client tells you that he does not like to wear clothing and that he walks around nude most of the time. In addition, he tells you that he lives in a society in which clothing is required and nudity is seen as abnormal. Which of the following is NOT a criterion by which you evaluate your client’s behavior as abnormal?
*c. subjective discomfort
178. Maria is a retired factory worker who lives with anxiety. Due to the fear of having anxiety attacks, she does not leave her house. This makes her feel trapped in her home, which creates distress. Which criterion would be most appropriate in deciding whether Maria’s case represents an example of abnormality?
*b. subjective discomfort
179. Which of the following is an example of subjective discomfort?
*b. worrying about everything most of the time
180. One sign of abnormality is when a person engages in behavior that creates a great deal of emotional distress or __________.
*a. subjective discomfort
181. The ______ model of mental illness explains that disorders such as anxiety, depression, and schizophrenia are caused by chemical imbalances, genetic problems, brain damage or dysfunction, or some combination of those causes.
*a. biological
182. The biological model views psychological disorders as resulting from _____________.
*d. physiological causes 28
183. The psychodynamic model of abnormal behavior is based on the work of ______.
*a. Freud
184. The psychodynamic model holds that abnormal behavior is the result of ______.
*b. repressed thoughts, memories, and concerns
185. Dave’s wife suggests that he talk to a doctor because of his inability to cope with criticism. The doctor suggests that Dave’s problem represents the expression of a repressed, unresolved, internal conflict buried in his unconscious mind that has its roots in Dave’s childhood. This view is typical of the ______ model of abnormality.
*d. psychodynamic
186. Linda is afraid of cats because, when she was a little girl, a cat scared her by jumping out of her closet and onto her face. As a result of this experience, Linda learned to be afraid of cats. Which model of abnormality offers the best explanation of Linda’s fear?
*b. behavioral
187. Which model of abnormality explains abnormal behavior as the result of a set of learned responses?
*c. behavioral
188. A behavioral therapist is working with a depressed client. Which of the following causes is the most likely focus of this therapist’s intervention?
*a. learned behaviors of depression
189. Which model of abnormality holds that physical, mental, and cultural factors are intertwined and that they must all be considered when dealing with psychology disorders?
*b. the biopsychosocial model
190. _______ is used to help psychological professionals diagnose psychological disorders.
*a. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)
191. DSM stands for:
*c. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual.
192. The most recent version of the DSM is the ________.
*c. DSM-5
193. The primary purpose of the DSM is to _____.
*c. help psychological professionals diagnose psychological disorders
194. Which of the following statements is true about the DSM-5?
*a. It describes symptoms and includes a checklist of specific criteria for diagnosis.
195. Which of the following is the most commonly diagnosed psychological disorder in the United States?
*b. major depressive disorder
196. Excessive or unrealistic fearfulness and worry are characteristic of ______.
*c. anxiety disorders
197. Which of the following statements is true about anxiety?
*b. Some anxiety is realistic when its source is understandable.
198. Manny has such an intense fear of flying insects that he hardly ever goes outside his house during the summer months. He is probably suffering from a ______.
*d. phobia
199. Kaylee refuses to change in the locker room during gym class. She is afraid that someone will see her body, make fun of it, and embarrass her. As a result, Kaylee skips gym class to avoid the situation. Based on this information, it is possible that Kaylee has ________.
*b. social anxiety disorder
200. Which of the following types of anxiety disorders is related to a history of shyness in childhood?
*c. social anxiety disorder
201. Fears of snakes, thunderstorms, darkness, and water are classified as ______ phobias.
*a. specific
202. What is the main difference between generalized anxiety disorder and phobic disorder?
*a. Phobic disorder is linked to specific triggers, while generalized anxiety disorder is not linked to a specific trigger.
203. Fear of being in a place or situation from which escape is difficult or impossible if something should go wrong is called ______.
*a. agoraphobia
204. Your aunt has a fear that makes it difficult for her to leave her home. She feels trapped and is unable to work or engage in any kind of activity that requires going outside of her home. You are not surprised when you find out your aunt is diagnosed with _________________.
*c. agoraphobia
205. Which of the following is the term used to describe a sudden onset of extreme panic, with various symptoms including racing heart, rapid breathing, and sweating?
*c. panic attack
206. Darcy is sitting at her desk in her office one day when, without warning, her heart begins racing rapidly, she has a sensation of being “out of her body,” and she experiences dulled vision and hearing, rapid breathing, and sweating. She thinks she is having a heart attack. Nothing she is doing seems to have caused such an episode. Her symptoms MOST resemble ______.
*b. a panic attack
207. An anxiety disorder characterized by frequent panic attacks that affect the person’s ability to function in day-to-day living is called ______.
*a. panic disorder
208. During his college years, Jacob often experienced episodes of intense fear accompanied by the physical sensations of a heart attack. Jacob might have experienced a ________ disorder while in college.
*c. panic
209. A disorder in which excessive anxiety and worry occur more days than not for at least six months is called __________.
*c. generalized anxiety disorder
210. Obsession is to compulsion as ________.
*a. thought is to behavior
211. As Carol and Ken are leaving for a trip, Carol repeatedly asks Ken, “Did we turn off the coffee pot?” For their entire trip, Carol worries about the coffee pot. Carol’s doubt about turning off the coffee pot is ________.
*a. an obsession
212. Linda’s house was flooded in a hurricane. Upon losing her home, she had nightmares, disturbed sleep, and anxiety that lasted about two weeks. Linda most likely suffered from ______________.
*a. acute stress disorder
213. Which of the following statements correctly describes the rate of PTSD among combat-exposed military personnel since 2001?
*c. The rate of PTSD has tripled since 2001.
214. The psychodynamic model views anxiety as __________.
*a. a danger signal that repressed conflicts are threatening to surface
215. Dr. Garcia is treating a patient who has a fear of knives. He believes his patient’s fear is a kind of displacement, in which the phobic object is a symbol of whatever his patient has buried deep inside her unconscious mind. Dr. Garcia’s view is consistent with that of ___________.
*c. the psychodynamic model
216. Liza has an anxiety disorder. She is currently seeing a therapist who believes that anxiety disorders are a result of illogical, irrational thought processes. Liza is probably seeking treatment from a _____________.
*b. cognitive psychologist
217. “Oh my gosh,” Sara exclaims as she leaves her biology exam. “I just KNOW that I got number 48 wrong! I just know that I’m going to fail this class.” According to a cognitive psychologist, Sara is engaging in which of the following distorted thought processes?
*a. all-or-nothing thinking
218. According to the biological perspective, generalized anxiety disorder is _________.
*d. linked to an imbalance in several neurotransmitters in the nervous system
219. The disorder or culture-bound syndrome in which men fear that their penis is shrinking is primarily found in which country?
*d. China
220. The term affect is used by psychologists to refer to ______.
*b. emotion
221. Severe depression that comes on suddenly or seems to have no external cause is called ______.
*d. major depressive disorder
222. Which of the following is a characteristic of major depressive disorder?
*b. diminished interest in daily activities
223. Which of the following is true regarding gender differences in the diagnosis of depression?
*a. Gender differences are nonexistent in college students and single adults.
224. __________ is a mood disorder that is caused by the body’s reaction to low levels of light present in the winter months.
*d. Seasonal affective disorder
225. A person who suffers from bipolar disorder alternates between periods of ________.
*b. depression and manic episodes
226. Padma is extremely confident and feels that lately she needs very little sleep. In addition, she reports that her thoughts seem to be going fast—similar to watching three television shows at once. Padma most likely is experiencing ________.
*a. a manic episode
227. When a patient arrives in the emergency room, he is restless and irritable with unlimited energy and a rapid rate of speech. The attending psychiatrist believes the patient has taken cocaine or amphetamines and admits him for observation. The next day, the symptoms are the same. What condition with symptoms that are similar to those associated with amphetamine use might the psychiatrist now consider as a condition that is relevant to the diagnosis?
*a. mania
228. What symptoms of bipolar disorder are present in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder?
*c. hyperactivity
229. Tara and Sarah are identical twins. If Tara has bipolar disorder, then Sarah has ________.
*c. a 40-70% chance of developing a mood disorder
230. Each of the following is a symptom of bulimia nervosa EXCEPT ______.
*b. refusal to maintain body weight at or above minimal normal weight for age and height
231. Steve’s psychiatrist notes that Steve is experiencing a disruption of the usually integrated functions of consciousness, memory, and identity. Therefore, Steve most likely has a(n) ________ disorder.
*c. dissociative
232. After being passed up for a promotion and then getting into a heated argument with his son, a man disappears. He shows up two weeks later in another town with no memory of who he is or how he got
*d. a dissociative disorder
233. The police find a man who is disheveled and in a daze wandering through the downtown area. When the police ask him for his name, he seems bewildered. A search of missing persons photographs reveals that this man was reported missing three months ago in a town more than 700 miles away. The man is most likely suffering from _________.
*b. dissociative fugue
234. Eve seeks treatment to learn how to relax. When her therapist hypnotizes her, her voice changes and someone claiming her name is “Joan” begins to speak. During therapy, 23 separate entities, each with its own name, personal style, and memories emerge. Eve appears to be suffering from ______ disorder.
*b. dissociative identity
235. Ned seeks therapy after having recurrent episodes of feeling “detached from himself” for several months, but he has not lost his self-awareness or memory. He notes that he feels like a robot, disconnected from his movements and actions. He is most likely suffering from ______.
*d. depersonalization/derealization disorder 36
236. A team of investigators has found that persons suffering from depersonalization/derealization disorder show significant differences in _________ when different personalities are present.
*b. PET scan activity
237. Which of the following perspectives claims that shaping may play a big role in the development of some cases of dissociative identity disorder?
*a. behavioral
238. What is the name of the culture-bound syndrome that involves a period of increased agitation and violence?
*c. amok
239. A person who is suffering from disordered thinking, bizarre behavior, and hallucinations, and who is unable to distinguish between fantasy and reality, is likely suffering from _______.
*a. schizophrenia
240. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding schizophrenia?
*d. It is a type of psychotic disorder.
241. A patient in a psychiatric hospital exhibits disordered thinking, bizarre behavior, and hallucinations. This person is probably suffering from ___________.
*a. schizophrenia