NYC FSD test

Impairment Coordinator
Person responsible for ensuring the proper safety precautions are taken when the protection system is placed out of service (designated by the owner).
How many feet of hose would be found at the standpipe outlet ?
125 feet
In fire prevention there are three areas to consider:
Education (building tenants)
Engineering (layout, suppression systems etc)
Enforcement(Building codes, Fire codes)
Fire Drill Frequency for Group B
Twice a year
Fire Drill Frequency for Group R1
Quarterly each year
Refresher training for Group B
1 hour annually (training)
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Refresher Training for Group R1
1 hour quarterly on each shift
The fire alarm system on your buildings 4th floor has stop functioning. In this case, the fire alarm system would be deemed:
out-of-service
It shall be unlawful to transmit unnecessary or unwarranted alarms in any six-month period if the amount of those alarms is:
three or more
Which of the following statements is accurate ?

A. Activation of a manual pull box shall not be construed as an unnecessary alarm.

B. Activation of a manual pull box shall not be construed as an unwarranted alarm.

C. Activation of a manual pull box shall not be construed as an unattended alarm.

D. Activation of a manual pull box shall not be construed as a disfunctional alarm.

A. Activation of a manual pull box shall not be construed as an unnecessary alarm.
5. The fire alarm system on the15th floor is unable to function in conformance with the law. In this case, the FSD should promptly notify:

A. the tenants occupying the 15th and 16th floors

B. the tenants occupying the 15th, 16th and 17th floors

C. the tenants occupying the 15th and 14th floors

D. the tenants occupying the 15th floor

D. the tenants occupying the 15th floor (occupants of the affected area).
6. An alarm log book shall be maintained on the premises. In general, where should it be kept ?

A. in the Property Managers Office

B. in the Chief Engineers Office

C. in the Mechanical Equipment Room

D. at the fire command station

D. at the fire command station
7. Which of the following statements about the Alarm Log Book is incorrect?

A. shall be a bound book (other than spiral bound)

B. all entries shall be made in ink and dated

C. shall be retained for a period of two years from the date of the last entry

D. separate log book shall be kept for each calendar year

C. shall be retained for a period of two years from the date of the last entry – 3 years not 2.
8. The interior fire alarm pull stations are positioned at the natural exits on each floor of the building. In larger buildings the fire alarm pull stations must be spaced so that the distance between stations does not exceed

A. 200 feet

B. 150 feet

C. 300 feet

D. 100 feet

A. 200 feet
9. Interior fire alarm pull stations must be securely mounted to the wall

A. at eye level

B. between 3.5 and 5 feet above the floor level

C. between 3 and 6 feet above the floor level

D. at various heights depending on the tenancy

B. between 3.5 and 5 feet above the floor level
10. All fire alarm pull stations must be painted .

A. red with white stripes

B. white with red stripes

C. red

D. white with red lettering

C. red
11. Once activated, a fire alarm system cannot be shut off at the pull station. The alarm must be shut off at the main control panel by which of the following people?

A. only the Certificate of Fitness holder

B. only a uniformed member of the NYFD

C. the Certificate of Fitness holder or a member of the engineering staff

D. the Certificate of Fitness holder or an FDNY representative

D. the Certificate of Fitness holder or an FDNY representative
12. In the case of a fire emergency where building occupants must be evacuated, occupants on which floor(s) are most seriously threatened by the spread of the fire and must be evacuated first?

A. the fire floor and the floor above

B. the fire floor and all floors above it

C. the fire floor, the floor above it, and the floor below it

D. the fire floor and other floors as determined by the FSD

B. the fire floor and all floors above it
13. When a fire alarm pull station located outside your office building is used, the person who pulled the alarm must

A. report to the Fire Command Station immediately afterwards

B. notify his/her immediate supervisor

C. wait at the alarm station until the fire fighting units arrive

D. do nothing after pulling the alarm

C. wait at the alarm station until the fire fighting units arrive
14. An alarm triggered by smoke from a lit cigarette in a non-smoking area, when the presence of such smoke does not implicate fire safety concerns, is called

A. an unwarranted alarm

B. an unnecessary alarm

C. an unfounded alarm

D. an unsubstantiated alarm

B. an unnecessary alarm
15. An alarm signal transmitted by a fire alarm system which failed to function as designed is considered to be an unwarranted alarm. This type of alarm comes about as a result of

A. improper installation

B. improper maintenance

C. malfunction

D. all of the above

D. all of the above
16. A signaling system which is operated by, and whose signals are received by the owner of the protected premises and which signals are capable of transmitting information to a Fire Department Borough Communications Office, is called

A. an ancillary protective signaling system

B. a proprietary protective signaling system

C. a sub-system protective signaling system

D. a direct-call protective signaling system

B. a proprietary protective signaling system
17. During fire emergencies, the primary responsibility of the Fire Safety Director shall be

A. the supervision and manning of the Fire Command Station

B. the supervision and overseeing of fire fighting activities

C. the supervision and overseeing of sprinkler/standpipe activation

D. the supervision and manning of the search and rescue operation

A. the supervision and manning of the Fire Command Station
18. In buildings100 feet or more in height, the Fire Command Station communication system shall be located on the ground floor and be able to communicate with all of the following locations except

A the building roof

B. each floor of the building

C. the elevator control room

D. the mechanical equipment room

A the building roof
19. In buildings100 feet or more in height, the Fire Command Station communication system shall consist of a loud speakers in each of the following locations except

A. each floor of the building

B. in each elevator

C. each stair enclosure

D. along the building perimeter

D. along the building perimeter
20. The Fire Command Station communication system should be capable of two-way voice communication between the fire command station and the following location(s)

A. a designated floor warden station on each floor

B. mechanical control center and air-handling control rooms

C. elevators and elevator machine rooms

D. all of the above

D. all of the above
21. The Fire Command Station display shall have the capability to monitor the following systems except:

A. Smoke Detection

B. Sprinkler Waterflow

C. Elevator Lobby Detector

D. Open hallway doors
22. When the alarm system is taken off-line, the Alarm Log Book must contain certain entries. Which one of the following choices shows an entry that is not required:

A. the date and time the system was taken off-line/restored to service

B. the reason for such action

C. the name and operator number of the person notified at the central station

D. the name of the person who performed the repair

D. the name of the person who performed the repair
23. The testing of Class “E” and “J” alarm systems must be physically tested at reasonable intervals. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. The Public Address System is required to be tested semi-annually

B. The Central Station Connection is required to be tested semi-annually

C. The Firemens Service Elevator is required to be tested daily

D. The Lamp Test is required to be tested monthly

A. The Public Address System is required to be tested semi-annually
24. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. The Manual Pull Stations are required to be tested semi-annually

B. The Alarm/Strobe System is required to be tested monthly

C. The Floor Wardens Phones are required to be tested monthly

D. The Fail Safe Release is required to be tested annually

A. The Manual Pull Stations are required to be tested semi-annually
25. In case of a fire emergency, building occupants must be evacuated. The people who are most seriously threatened by the spread of the fire, who must be evacuated first, would be

A. occupants on the fire floor and the floor above

B. occupants on the fire floor and the 2 floors above

C. occupants on the fire floor, one floor above, and one floor below

D. occupants on the fire floor and all floors above

A. occupants on the fire floor and the floor above
26. The telephone numbers of the local Fire Company and the Fire Department Borough Communication Office

must be posted

A. near the phones most accessible to the most people

B. near the phones most likely to be used in case of an emergency

C. near the phones located in the main lobby

D. near the phones located in each elevator lobby

B. near the phones most likely to be used in case of an emergency
. 27. On receipt of an alarm for fire the Fire Brigade will

A. report to the floor below the fire to assist in evacuation

B. report to the floor above the fire to provide information to the Fire Command Station

C. endeavor to control the spread of fire by closing doors, etc. prior to evacuation

D. None of the above

A. report to the floor below the fire to assist in evacuation
28. The Fire Brigade should attempt to control a fire until arrival of the Fire Department, if

A. the FSD orders it

B. it has been determined that there will be a delayed response by the Fire Department

C. the fire is small and conditions do not pose a personal threat

D. human life is being threatened by it

C. the fire is small and conditions do not pose a personal threat
29. On receipt of an alarm for fire, the Fire Brigade will leave one of their members at a location to direct the Fire Department to the fire location, and to inform them of conditions. That location is

A. two floors below the fire floor

B. the floor below the fire floor

C. three floors below the fire floor

D. two floors above the fire floor

B. the floor below the fire floor
30. On arrival of the Fire Department, the Fire Brigade shall report

A. to the Fire Command Station for additional instructions

B. to the posts they were manning prior to receipt of the alarm

C. to the doors to prevent entry into the building

D. to the Property Managers Office for re-assignment

A. to the Fire Command Station for additional instructions
31. The majority of fire deaths are a result of

A. burns

B. trip and falls

C. being struck by falling debris

D. smoke inhalation

D. smoke inhalation
32. Panic is sometimes defined as a sudden and excessive feeling of alarm or fear usually affecting a body of persons, originating in some real or supposed danger. Which of the following statements is accurate?

A. People panic when there is no hope of escape.

B. Contagious behavior is never an element of panic.

C. Irrational, illogical response to the fire situation is an element of panic

D. Concern for others overriding personal concern is an element of panic

C. Irrational, illogical response to the fire situation is an element of panic
33. The following statements represent an experts opinion about panic. Which statement is incorrect?

A. there is usually no evidence of panic when there is no hope of escape

B. people tend to “follow the leader” in times of stress or when they need reassurance about their actions

C. panic occurs in those instances where an individual does not follow the actions of the group

D. contagious behavior is very uncommon in emergencies

D. contagious behavior is very uncommon in emergencies
34. Which of the following statements is accurate?

A. Most people leave separately in a dangerous situation

B. Some people practice Denial during a fire, especially during the latter stages

C. the speed of the evacuation is usually based on the speed of the fastest member

D. Some people elect to “finish up” what they were engaged in even after the fire alarms have sounded

D. Some people elect to “finish up” what they were engaged in even after the fire alarms have sounded
35. When Evacuation is deemed necessary

A. Occupants shall try to use the same stairs being used by the Fire Department

B. Initial evacuation should be via uncontaminated elevators

C. Evacuation to one level below the fire floor is generally adequate

D. Occupants shall select an alternate stairwell if a stairwell is effected by smoke,

D. Occupants shall select an alternate stairwell if a stairwell is effected by smoke,
36. Which person/entity listed below is responsible for the availability and state of readiness of the Fire Brigade?

A. The N.Y.C. Fire Dept., Bureau of Fire Prevention.

B. The owner of the building.

C. Each employer of the tenants occupying the building.

D. The Fire Safety Director.

D. The Fire Safety Director.
37. Standpipe systems are classified depending on who is expected to use the system. A Class I system is designed to be used by Fire Department and Fire Brigade personnel. What is the diameter of the fire hoses in these systems?

A. 2½ inches

B. 2 inches

C. 1½ inches

D. 1 inch

A. 2½ inches
38. The qualified building service employees who make up the Fire Brigade will be organized and trained by

A. The Property Manager

B. Certified F.S.D. Schools

C. The Fire Safety Director

D. The N.Y.F.D. Training Academy

C. The Fire Safety Director
39. The FSD is responsible for the designation of a Fire Warden for

A. each floor

B. every other floor

C. every floor not equipped with a sprinkler system

D. every floor not equipped with smoke detectors

A. each floor
40. Sufficient Deputy Fire Wardens should be designated for

A. 75% of the tenancy

B. for each tenancy lacking a Fire Warden

C. each tenancy

D. specific tenancies as per the Property Manager

C. each tenancy
41. How frequently should a FSD perform a check for the availability of the Fire Warden and Deputy Fire Wardens?

A. daily

B. weekly

C. twice a month

D. twice a week

A. daily
42. A tenant shall make responsible and dependable employees available for designation as Fire Warden and Deputy Fire Wardens upon request of

A. the person in charge of the building

B. the FSD

C. The N.Y.C. Fire Dept.

D. the Fire Safety Coordinator

A. the person in charge of the building or the owner
43. Each floor of a building shall be under the direction of a designated Fire Warden, who shall be assisted in his duties by Deputy Fire Wardens. In the event of a fire, they are responsible for

A. the training of occupants

B. the identification of responsible occupants

C. the fire fighting skills of occupants

D. the evacuation of occupants

D. the evacuation of occupants
44. A Deputy Fire Warden shall be provided for each tenancy. When the floor area of a tenancy exceeds a certain amount of square feet of occupiable space, a Deputy Warden shall be assigned for each such

A. 7,500 square feet or part thereof

B. 7,000 square feet or part thereof

C. 8,500 square feet or part thereof

D. 6,500 square feet or part thereof

A. 7,500 square feet or part thereof
45. Each Fire Warden and Deputy Fire Warden shall be familiar with the Fire Safety Plan, the location of exits and the location and operation of any available

A. trash compactor

B. flame producing equipment

C. passenger elevator

D. fire alarm system

D. fire alarm system
46. In the event of fire alarm the Fire Warden shall first

A. Ascertain the location of the fire

B. Ascertain the location of the Deputy Fire Wardens

C. Ascertain the location of the fire brigade

D. Ascertain location of the FSD

A. Ascertain the location of the fire
47. A Fire Warden should know that in the event of a fire, if the elevators servicing his floor also service the fire floor, they

A. may be used only with extreme caution

B. may be used as a last resort

C. may not be used

D. may not be used by non-tenants

C. may not be used
48. Fire Wardens should know that in the event of a fire, elevators may be used if there is more than one bank of elevators, and he is informed by whom, that one bank is unaffected by the fire.

A. Informed from the floor below the fire floor

B. Informed from the Fire Command Station

C. Informed from the chief of the Fire Brigade

D. Informed from those in an unaffected area

B. Informed from the Fire Command Station
49. In the event of a fire there are times and circumstances under which elevators may be used. They may be used

A. if there is more than one bank of elevators, and the Fire Warden is informed from the Fire Command Station that one bank is unaffected by the fire

B. if elevators do not service the fire floor and their shafts have no openings on the fire floor, they may be used, unless otherwise directed

C. if manned by trained building personnel or fireman

D. all of the above

D. all of the above
50. In the event of a fire, and in the absence of a serviceable elevator the Fire Warden shall select the safest stairway to use for evacuation based on information received from the Fire Command Station and .

A. directions from immediate supervisors

B. the odor of smoke

C. the location of the fire

D. all of the above

C. the location of the fire
51. In the event of a fire, the Fire Warden shall check the environment in the stair prior to entry for evacuation. If it is affected by smoke, the Fire Command Station shall be notified and

A. an alternate stair shall be selected

B. an elevator shall be selected

C. a shelter-in-place shall be commenced

D. the evacuation will be suspended

A. an alternate stair shall be selected
52. During a fire, the most critical areas for immediate evacuation are the fire floor and the floors immediately above. Evacuation from the other floors shall be instituted when

A. instructions from the Property Manager indicates such action

B. conditions indicate such action

C. the majority of tenants demand it

D. the Fire Brigade suggests such action

B. conditions indicate such action
53. A Building Evacuation Supervisor is required at all times when there are occupants in the building and

A. there is no Fire Safety Director on duty in the building.

B. there is no Deputy Fire Safety Director on duty in the building.

C. there is no Deputy Fire Safety Director required to be on duty in the

D. there is no Fire Safety Director required to be on duty in the building

D. there is no Fire Safety Director required to be on duty in the building
54. During fire emergencies, the primary responsibility of the Building Evacuation Supervisor shall be to

A. supervise the emergency

B. man the Fire Command Station

C. man the Fire Brigade

D. supervise the Fire Brigade

B. man the Fire Command Station
55. The Building Evacuation Supervisors training and related activities shall be subject to Fire Department control, and shall be under the direction of

A. his immediate supervisor

B. the Fire Safety Director

C. the Buildings owner

D. the Fire Department

B. the Fire Safety Director
56. How often should fire drills be conducted for existing buildings?

A. twice every six months

B. once a year

C. quarterly

D. once every six months

D. once every six months
57. How often should fire drills be conducted for new buildings, i.e., during the first two years after the issuance of the certificate of occupancy?

A. twice every six months

B. every other month

C. quarterly

D. once every three months

D. once every three months
58. Who shall participate in fire drills?

A. all occupants

B. volunteer occupants only

C. occupants of every other floor

D. none of the above

A. all occupants
59. During a fire drill, occupants of the building, other than building service employees, are

A. required to leave the floor

B. required to use the exits during the drill

C. not required to leave the floor

D. not required to vacate their cubicle

C. not required to leave the floor
60. A written record of fire drills shall be readily available for Fire Department inspection, and shall be kept on the premises for a

A. two year period

B. three year period

C. one year period

D. five year period

B. three year period
61. A building classified in §27-253 of the Building (Administrative) Code as occupancy group E, is one which is occupied or arranged to be occupied for an occupant load of more than

A. 150 persons above or below the street level or more than a total of 500 persons in the entire building

B. 100 persons above or below the street level or more than a total of 400 persons in the entire building

C. 150 persons above or below the street level or more than a total of 400 persons in the entire building

D. 100 persons above or below the street level or more than a total of 500 persons in the entire building

D. 100 persons above or below the street level or more than a total of 500 persons in the entire building
62. Which of the statements listed below is Not an objective of having Fire Drills. Fire Drills are conducted

A. to provide proper education as a part of one-time only employee indoctrination

B. to assure the prompt reporting of fire

C. to assure the prompt response to fire alarms as designated

D. to assure the immediate initiation of the fire safety procedures to safeguard life and contain fire

A. to provide proper education as a part of one-time only employee indoctrination. Education is on going, continuos
63. A standpipe system shall be subjected to a hydrostatic pressure test, and also a flow and pressure test, to demonstrate its suitability for Fire Department use. These tests shall be conducted

A. at least once in two years

B. at least once in five years

C. at least once a year

D. at least once in three years

B. at least once in five years
64. The Certificate of Fitness holder should immediately report all major standpipe system defects to all of the following, except:

A. the local Fire Company

B. the Bureau of Fire Prevention

C. the affected tenant

D. the owner or manager of the building

C. the affected tenant
65. The FSD must report the complete or partial shut down of sprinkler and/or standpipe systems for repairs, or other reasons, to :

A. the N.Y.C. Water Dept.

B. the Bureau of Fire Prevention

C. the affected tenant

D. adjacent building owners

B. the Bureau of Fire Prevention
66. Standpipe defects or violations which are minor in nature should be reported to the owner or manager of the building. The defects should be reported in writing to the Bureau of Fire Prevention if the defects are not corrected within

A. 30 days

B. 20 days

C. 15 days

D. 10 days

A. 30 days
67. The caps of each siamese connection used for combination standpipe and sprinkler systems shall be painted what color?

A. white

B. yellow

C. red with white stripes

D. green

B. yellow
68. When responding to an alarm most Fire Departments supply water to which system first?
A. gravity tank system

B. roof manifold system

C. sprinkler system

D. standpipe system

D. standpipe system
69. Care should be taken that standpipe and the sprinkler connections are properly marked because the connections look the same. The New York Building Code requires siamese connections to be color coded. The siamese connection to a standpipe system should be painted

A. green

B. aluminum

C. red

D. white

C. red
70. The standpipe system provides water that fire fighters can manually discharge through hoses onto a fire. Water is fed into a piping system which runs vertically (up and down) and horizontally (side to side) throughout the building. The piping running vertically are usually called

A. verticals

B. gravity fed

C. risers

D. none of the above

C. risers
71. When a standpipe system is installed and properly maintained it is a very effective means for extinguishing fires. This piping system supplies water to every floor in the building. Standpipe risers are usually located in the staircase enclosures or in the building

A. walls

B. ceilings

C. floors

D. hallways

D. hallways
72. Standpipe systems are used in buildings where it may be difficult for the Fire Department to pump water on the fire. Standpipe systems are required in buildings that are over how many feet in height?

A. 100

B. 75

C. 60

D. 50

B. 75
73 . The top of a standpipe riser extends up onto the roof. Three hose connections are attached to the top of the standpipe riser. These three connections make up the

A. roof manifold

B. O S & Y

C. gate valve assembly

D. release rack

A. roof manifold
74. Which of the following statements is accurate?

A. A standpipe system may not be combined with an automatic fire protection system

B. A standpipe system and a sprinkler system may never be installed in the same building

C. The standpipe and the sprinkler systems may never share the same water supply

D. The standpipe and the sprinkler systems may share the same riser piping

D. The standpipe and the sprinkler systems may share the same riser piping
75. The roof manifold is used when testing the water flow in the standpipe system, and when extinguishing fires

A. on the roof

B. on the upper floors

C. in adjacent buildings

D. on the top floor

A. on the roof
76. The hose and nozzle in a standpipe system must be accessible at all times. The hose outlets are located so that every part of the building may be reached with a hose stream. The maximum length of a single hoseline is

A. 100 feet

B. 125 feet

C. 75 feet

D. 50 feet

B. 125 feet
77. Sometimes, standpipe system hoses are installed in cabinets. If the hoses are installed in cabinets each cabinet should be labeled

A. “FIRE HOSE”

B. “HOSE CABINET ”

C. “STANDPIPE SYSTEM”

D. “FSD EQUIPMENT”

A. “FIRE HOSE”
78. A pressure-reducing device should be installed in the piping at each standpipe system hose outlet. This device controls the maximum pounds per square inch of water pressure allowed to flow into the hose.

The maximum psi of water pressure allowed to flow into the hose is

A. 70 psi

B. 80 psi

C. 90 psi

D. 100 psi

D. 100 psi
79. It is dangerous if the water pressure in a standpipe system hose outlet is too high. An occupant of the building may be injured if a hose is used when the pressure-reducing device is not installed. However, during an emergency who may remove the pressure-reducing device?

A. the fire fighter

B. the FSD

C. the fire-floor Fire Warden

D. the Chief Engineer

A. the fire fighter
80. Each standpipe system is fitted with a drain valve. The drain valve is located at the lowest point on the standpipe system. The drain valve is used when the standpipe system is being tested or repaired.

Under normal conditions the drain valve is sealed in what position?

A. closed

B. half open

C. fully opened

D. one-turn opened

A. closed
81. OS&Y (Outside Stem and Yoke) gate valves are installed at several places in the standpipe system. The OS&Y valves can be used to shut down part of the standpipe system. Sections may be shut down for testing,

repairs or maintenance. The stem of an OS&Y valve must be kept in what position at all times?

A. the retracted, or open, position

B. the extended, or open, position

C. the extended, or closed, position

D. the retracted, or closed, position

B. the extended, or open, position
82. A Wet Standpipe system always has water under pressure in the piping so it should be protected from freezing. In some cases it may be necessary to increase the water pressure by means of a

A. diverter valve

B. gravity booster

C. auxiliary system

D. fire pump

D. fire pump
83. A Dry Standpipe system is usually installed in unheated buildings. Under normal conditions there is no water in the standpipe. Instead of water, what substance is in the system, under pressure?

A. foam

B. anti-freeze liquid

C. air

D. liquid chemicals

C. air
84. A dry pipe valve is installed in a Dry Standpipe system to automatically permit water into the standpipe when what takes place?

A. a hose is opened

B. a wrench is turned

C. a siamese connection is activated

D. an electronic signal is received

A. a hose is opened
85. There are 3 classes of standpipe systems, and they are classified depending on who is expected to use the system and the size of the fire hoses in the system. Which of the following statements is inaccurate?

A. Class I. This system is designed to be used only by the NYFD

B. Class II. This system is designed to be used by the occupants of a shelter.

C. Class III. This system may be used by either trained fire fighters or by occupants of a shelter.

D. Class I. fire hoses are 2½ inches in diameter; Class II. fire hoses are 1½ inches in diameter.

A. Class I. This system is designed to be used only by the NYFD (AND specially trained personnel).
86. When a standpipe system is supplied from a public water main, operating a control valve between the building and the water main may close down the entire system. A special key may be required to operate this valve. This shutoff valve is frequently located in a box that is recessed in the

A. wall

B. ceiling

C. basement

D. sidewalk

D. sidewalk
87. Fire Department connections to a standpipe system must be readily accessible, and properly marked. Each connection should be fitted with a device that prevents the backflow of the private water supply into the public water supply. This device is called a

A. OS & Y valve

B. check valve

C. backpressure valve

D. reverse osmosis valve

B. check valve
88. . of adequate capacity and pressure is What water supply connection is the preferred single or primary supply for a standpipe system?

A. a connection from a reliable and adequate public water works system

B. a connection from a reliable and adequate gravity tank (good primary supply, may be acceptable as a single supply

C. a connection from a reliable and adequate pressure tank (important limitation is the small volume of water that can be stored)

D. a connection from a reliable and adequate fire pump

A. a connection from a reliable and adequate public water works system
89. Where a small pressure tank is accepted as the water supply for a standpipe system, the system is classified as a

A. “primary supply system”.

B. “secondary supply system”.

C. “reasonable supply system”.

D. “limited supply system”

D. “limited supply system”
90. A building may have both a standpipe and a sprinkler system installed. Each system may have its own water supply source. For example, the standpipe system may be supplied by a gravity tank and the sprinkler system supplied by a pressure tank. Which of the following is an accurate statement?

A. It is quite common for the two systems to share the same water supply source.

B. The two systems should never share the same water supply source

C. It is very rare for the two systems to share the same water supply source.

D. For the two systems to share the same water supply source, it would only be by exception

A. It is quite common for the two systems to share the same water supply source.
91. The sprinkler and standpipe systems must be regularly inspected to make sure that they are working

properly, and free from corrosion, physical damage, and especially tampering. All parts of the sprinkler and standpipe system must be visually inspected

A. weekly

B. monthly

C. bi-monthly

D. semi-annually

B. monthly
92. Under normal conditions the pipes in the non-automatic sprinkler systems are dry. Water is supplied when necessary by pumping water into the system through

A. roof manifold

B. OS & Y valve

C. the siamese connection

D. gravity tank

C. the siamese connection
93. Sprinkler heads are made of metal, and are screwed into the piping at standard intervals. What size is the opening, through which the water is discharged, in a standard sprinkler head?

A. 1 inch opening

B. 1/4 inch opening

C. 3/4 inch opening

D. 1/2 inch opening

D. 1/2 inch opening
94. A sprinkler head is held closed by an arrangement of soldered levers and links. This prevents the discharge of water until it is needed because of a fire. The solder is designed to melt when the temperature in the room reaches a predetermined level. When the solder melts the levers and links separate and the sprinkler heads opens, the sprinkler head is said to have

A. “linked”

B. “fused”

C. “activated”

D. “launched”

B. “fused”
95. Care must be taken to make certain that no part of an automatic sprinkler head is damaged when a

room or the piping is painted or whitewashed, because it could interfere with the free movement of the links and levers and delay the opening of the sprinkler head, preventing the discharge of water. The accumulation of foreign material on the sprinkler head is commonly referred to as a

A. “inop sprinkler head”

B. “sprung sprinkler head”

C. “skewed sprinkler head”

D. “loaded sprinkler head”

D. “loaded sprinkler head”
96. The manufacturer may have painted part of the sprinkler head. If any other paint gets on the sprinkler head, or if foreign material has accumulated on it, it must be

A. replaced

B. closely examined by C of F maintenance company

C. scraped clean and field tested

D. repaired

A. replaced
97. Automatic sprinkler heads have various temperature ratings indicating the temperature at which they are

designed to operate. The temperature rating of all solder-type automatic sprinkler heads is stamped on the soldered link. Ordinary Classification Heads with a temperature rating of 135-170 ° (F) would be

A. Painted black or be chrome colored

B. Unpainted or partly black or chrome

C. Painted chrome

D. Painted black

B. Unpainted or partly black or chrome
8. A supply of at least six extra appropriate sprinkler heads must be kept available on the premises. These

extra sprinkler heads must be stored

A. at the Fire Command Station

B. in the Property Managers Office

C. in the Chief Engineers office

D. next to the main control valve for the sprinkler system

D. next to the main control valve for the sprinkler system
99. In a Dry Pipe Sprinkler Systems a dry pipe valve is installed where the water supply enters the sprinkler system. Piping in the sprinkler system is filled with air under pressure, and water is prevented from entering the piping by the dry pipe valve. The air pressure in the piping keeps the valve in the closed position. When a sprinkler head opens, the valve opens because

A. the air pressure is stabilized

B. the air pressure is increased

C. the air pressure is displaced

D. the air pressure is reduced

D. the air pressure is reduced
100. The Certificate of Fitness Holder shall maintain a detailed record of all sprinkler head inspections. A record card with the date of each inspection, the Certificate of Fitness number, and the signature of the Certificate of Fitness holder shall be posted

A. near the main control valve

B. near the main OS & Y valve

C. near the Chief Engineers Office

D. near the main siamese connections valve

A. near the main control valve
101. The detailed inspection report shall include information relative to conditions of the sprinkler heads, and conditions of all other system equipment and appurtenances. All defects of violations shall be noted on the report. Records should be made available to any representative of the Fire Department, and be kept for

A. indefinitely

B. three years

C. one year

D. two years

D. two years
102. As per 3 RCNY §15-02, “Portable Fire Extinguishers”, portable fire extinguishers shall be provided in occupancies or spaces used or classified as offices, hotels and motels. In unsprinklered buildings, they shall provide one fire extinguisher of minimum 2-A rating for every

A. five thousand (5,000) square feet of floor area or fraction thereof on each floor

B. six thousand (6,000) square feet of floor area or fraction thereof on each floor

C. four thousand (4,000) square feet of floor area or fraction thereof on each floor

D. three thousand (3,000) square feet of floor area or fraction thereof on each floor

B. six thousand (6,000) square feet of floor area or fraction thereof on each floor
103 . A fire extinguisher labeled with letter “K” is for use on Class K fires. Class K fires are fires that involve

A. Class E office buildings

B. Retail stores

C. Commercial kitchens

D. K-Mart stores

C. Commercial kitchens
104 . As per 3 RCNY §15-02, “Portable Fire Extinguishers”, an inspection of a portable fire extinguisher which is intended to give reasonable assurance that the fire extinguisher is fully charged and operable, and is in its designated place, not tampered with, and has no visible physical damage or condition to prevent its operation, is called

A. A “quick check” inspection

B. A “double check” inspection

C. An “educated check” inspection

D. A “new method” inspection

A. A “quick check” inspection
105. As per 3 RCNY §15-02, “Portable Fire Extinguishers”, portable fire extinguishers shall be provided in occupancies or spaces used or classified as offices, hotels and motels. In fully sprinklered buildings classified as offices or places of worship, they shall provide one fire extinguisher of minimum 2-A rating for every

A. 14,000 square feet of floor area or fraction thereof on each floor

B. 12,000 square feet of floor area or fraction thereof on each floor

C. 10,000 square feet of floor area or fraction thereof on each floor

D. 8, 000square feet of floor area or fraction thereof on each floor

B. 12,000 square feet of floor area or fraction thereof on each floor
106. In hotels and motel, there should be one fire extinguisher of a minimum of 2-A rating for every 6,000 square feet of floor area or part thereof

A. Sprinklered or not.

B. if unsprinklered

C. if more than half sprinklered

D. if more than 3/4 sprinklered

A. Sprinklered or not.
107. For both Class E and J-1 buildings, sprinklered or not, fire extinguishers (minimum 2-A rating) shall be located so that the travel distance to an extinguisher shall not exceed how many feet?

A. 70 feet

B. 50 feet

C. 100 feet

D. 75 feet

D. 75 feet
108. Extinguishers must be conspicuously located, along the normal paths of travel. For extinguishers 40 lbs or less, the top of the extinguisher can not be higher than how many feet above the floor?

A. 5 feet

B. 4 feet

C. 6 feet

D. 3 feet

A. 5 feet
109. For extinguishers greater than 40 lbs in weight, the top of the extinguisher can not be more than how many feet above the floor

A. 3½ feet

B. 4½ feet

C. 3 feet

D. 4 feet

A. 3½ feet
110. Regardless of how much a fire extinguisher weighs, how much clearance must there be between the bottom of the extinguisher and the floor?

A. at least 4½” of clearance

B. at least 4″ of clearance

C. at least 3″ of clearance

D. at least 3½” of clearance

B. at least 4″ of clearance
111. Extinguishing Systems for Hoods, Vent Pipes, Flues or Ducts are regulated by RCNY §15-04. The extinguishing system shall be automatic or both automatic and manual in operation. The manual controls shall be accessibly located at least how many feet from the range, sealed in the closed position with a light wire seal or a break glass control. ?

A. 20 feet

B. 15 feet

C. 10 feet

D. 08 feet

C. 10 feet
112. Extinguishing Systems for Hoods, Vent Pipes, Flues or Ducts are regulated by RCNY §15-04. The extinguishing system shall be automatic or both automatic and manual in operation. The automatic operation shall be arranged to

A. shut off the gas

B. shut off the exhaust fans

C. close the dampers in the exhaust system

D. all of the above

D. all of the above
113. The Extinguishing Systems for Hoods, Vent Pipes, Flues or Ducts, as regulated by RCNY §15-04, could use all the following extinguishing agents except

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Fine water spray

C. Steam

D. Hydrogen gas

D. Hydrogen gas
114. Installations of a Clean Agent fire extinguishing systems may be accepted by the Fire Commissioner pursuant to §27-404 of the Administrative Code where the nature of the fire hazard is such that

A. halon is not effective as an extinguishing agent

B. steam is not effective as an extinguishing agent

C. water is not effective as an extinguishing agent

D. carbon dioxide is not effective as an extinguishing agent

C. water is not effective as an extinguishing agent
115. The use of Freon FE-1301 (Halon 1301) as a fire extinguishing agent shall be limited to its use for automatic total flooding systems for interior with provision for sufficient “soaking” time where Class A or deep seated fires are to be extinguished;

A. Class A or B fires

B. Class A, B or C fires

C. Class A or C fires

D. Class A, B, C or D fires

B. Class A, B or C fires
117.In a siamese connection, whats the name of the device between the check valve and the outside hose coupling that prevents water from building up in the piping? This device makes sure that the Fire Department connection is not blocked by water which has frozen in the piping.

A. the automatic ball drip

B. the anti-drip valve

C. the automatic drain valve

D. the automatic joint drip

A. the automatic ball drip
118. The hose in a standpipe system is usually stored

A. on a quick release reel

B. on a quick release table

C. on a quick release hanger

D. on a quick release rack

D. on a quick release rack
119. When standpipe system hose outlets are not easy to see, what should be done?

A. memos should be distributed to all building tenants and new tenants

B. signs should be posted telling where the hose outlets are located

C. notification telephone calls should be made to each tenant

D. notification e-mails should be sent to each tenant, regularly

B. signs should be posted telling where the hose outlets are located
120. OS&Y (Outside Screw and Yoke) gate valves are installed at several places in a standpipe system, and can be used to shut down just a part of the standpipe system. If the stem is flush with the control wheel the valve is

A. opened

B. ½ closed

C. closed

D. inoperable

C. closed
121. A gravity tank system delivers water from the tank through the standpipe system without the use of pumping equipment. A gravity tank should be at least how many feet above the highest standpipe hose outlet that it supplies?

A. 25 feet

B. 30 feet

C. 35 feet

D. 45 feet

A. 25 feet
122. Fire pumps are designed to take the water from a supply source and then discharge the water into the standpipe or sprinkler system under pressure. The pressure with which the water is discharged from the pump is called the

A. discharge pressure

B. outbound head

C. primary head pressure

D. total head

D. total head
123. A fire pump is usually connected to what for most of its water supply?

A. a suction tank

B. a gravity tank

C. the building water tank

D. the public water main

D. the public water main
124. Acceptable fire pumps must deliver a minimum of at least how many pounds per square inch at the highest line of sprinkler heads or the highest line of hoses in a standpipe system?

A. 35 psi

B. 25 psi

C. 20 psi

D. none of the above

B. 25 psi
125. Which type of fire pump is the standard pump used in most fire protection systems? It is the preferred pump because it is reliable, compact, and requires little maintenance. And it can be powered by a variety of drivers including electric motors, internal combustion engines, and steam turbines.

A. Centrifugal fire pump

B. Vertical Turbine Pump

C. Jockey Pump

D. Pressure maintenance pump

A. Centrifugal fire pump
126. There are several kinds and models of centrifugal pumps. Some centrifugal pumps can discharge water from 250 gpm (gallons per minute) up to 5,000 gpm. Most centrifugal pumps have a single impeller and are therefore commonly called

A. single stage fire pumps

B. one-stage fire pumps

C. primary fire pumps

D. uni-stage fire pumps

A. single stage fire pumps
127. The basic components of an HVAC system that delivers conditioned air to maintain thermal comfort and indoor air quality are:

A. outdoor air intake and an air filter

B. mixed-air plenum and outdoor air control

C. heating/cooling coils and humidification and/or de-humidification equipment

D. all of the above

D. all of the above
Q.128 . Which of the following does not describe a Typical HVAC System Component?

A. water cooler

B. return air system

C. supply fan & ducts

D. exhaust or relief fans and air outlet

A. water cooler (it’s a water chiller, not cooler).
Q. 129. Information display systems used in connection with Class E Fire Alarm Signal Systems shall be of
an approved electrically supervised type. The indicating devices shall describe

A. the purpose they serve

B. the name of the manufacturer

C. the date of system installation

D. the source of the power supply

A. the purpose they serve
Q. 130. Two sources of electrical energy shall be provided for direct wire fire alarm signal systems. Which of the following statements is accurate?

A. The primary source shall be storage battery power, and the secondary source shall be generated electric power supplied by utility company power or isolated plants.

B. The primary source shall be adequate emergency power, and the secondary source shall be storage battery power.

C. The primary source shall be generated electric power supplied by utility company power or isolated plants, and the secondary source shall be energy diverted from an adjacent building.

D. The primary source shall be generated electric power supplied by utility company power or isolated plants, and the secondary source shall be adequate emergency power if available or storage battery power.

D. The primary source shall be generated electric power supplied by utility company power or isolated plants, and the secondary source shall be adequate emergency power if available or storage battery power.
Q. 131. Alarm sounding devices, i.e. approved gongs, shall be sufficient in number to be clearly audible to

A. all occupants of a building

B. at least 75% of the building occupants

C. the majority of building occupants

D. all the occupants above the 10th floor

A. all occupants of a building
Q. 210. – The percentage of a substance (vapor) in the air that will burn once it is ignited is called

A. Ignition limits

B. Burn limits

C. Flammable limits

D. Flash limits

C. Flammable limits
Q. 209. The temperature at which liquid fuel will produce vapors sufficient to support continuous combustion once ignited is called

A. Flash Point

B. Fire Point

C. Flame Point

D. Explosive Point

B. Fire Point
Q.208. The minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near the surface is called

A. Flammable

B. Vaporization

C. Radiation

D. Flash Point

D. Flash Point
Q. 207. When combustible metals such as aluminum, magnesium, titanium, zirconium, sodium, and potassium are used to fuel a fire, it would be deemed what Class of fire?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

D. Class D
Q. 206. When energized electrical equipment such as household appliances, computers, transformers, and overhead transmission lines are used to fuel a fire, it would be deemed what Class of fire?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

C. Class C
Q. 205. When flammable and combustible liquids and gases such as gasoline, oil, lacquer, paint, mineral spirits, and alcohol, are used to fuel a fire, it would be deemed what Class of fire?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

B. Class B
Q. 204. When wood, cloth, paper, rubber, or even some plastics, are used to fuel a fire, it would be deemed what Class of fire?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

A. Class A
Q. 203. A transfer of heat occurs when the sun heats the surface of the earth. This transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves, absorbed by opaque surfaces, is called

A. Conduction

B. Radiation

C. Solar

D. Absortion

B. Radiation
Q. 202. The transfer of heat through solid surfaces such as metal pipes or ductwork, is called

A. Conduction

B. Radiation

C. Transference

D. Solidity

A. Conduction
Q. 201. The transfer of heat through liquids or gases, including smoke, is called

A. Transference

B. Conduction

C. Ambience

D. Convection

D. Convection
Q. 200. What do you call a device installed in an air distribution system, that is designed to close automatically upon detection of heat, to interrupt migratory airflow, and to restrict the passage of flame?

A. Fire Exhaust System

B. Fire Damper

C. Ceiling Damper

D. Flame Spread System

B. Fire Damper
Q.199. The weight of the building materials and any part of the building permanently attached or built in, would be considered that buildings

A. Impact load

B. Compression load

C. Dead load

D. Shear load

C. Dead load
Q. 198. What type of load consists of the weight of all materials and people associated with, but not part of a structure? An example of this type of load would be the accumulation of snow or water on the surface of a flat roof.

A. Axial load

B. Eccentric load

C. Torsional load

D. Live load

D. Live load
Q. 197. Loading is the weight of the building and what the structure must be able to resist. When a load is applied to a small area, such as an air conditioning unit on a roof, it is known as a

A. Fire Load

B. Concentrated Load

C. Distributed Load

D. Dead Load

B. Concentrated Load
Q. 196. There are five general types of building construction classifications defined for fire protection purposes.

A broad range of structural systems capable of withstanding fires of specified intensity and duration without failure and whose components include masonry load-bearing walls, reinforced concrete or protective steel columns, would be considered .

A. Common fire-resistive

B. Common fire-rejective

C. Common fire-proof

D. Common fire-retardant

A. Common fire-resistive
Q. 195. Generally speaking, all unsprinklered floor areas in an office building shall be segregated by one-hour fire separations into spaces or compartments not to exceed .

A. 5000 square feet

B. 6000 square feet

C. 7500 square feet

D. 8000 square feet

C. 7500 square feet
Q. 194. In lieu of a smoke shaft or shafts, all interior enclosed stairs, other than a fire tower or access stairs, may be provided with what type of system for fire emergency use?

A. a system of purging

B. a system of pressurization

C. a system of decontamination

D. a system of de-ionizing

B. a system of pressurization
Q. 193. ) Existing office buildings, 100 feet or more in height, having air conditioning and/or mechanical ventilation systems that serve more than the floor on which the equipment is located, shall be provided with at least how many smoke shafts, by means of which smoke and heat shall be mechanically vented to the outdoors?

A. four smoke shafts

B. three smoke shafts

C. two smoke shafts

D. one smoke shaft

D. one smoke shaft
Q. 192. A sign shall be posted and maintained within each stair enclosure, indicating the number of the floor. The sign shall be posted

A. on every other floor

B. on every odd numbered floor

C. on every third floor

D. on every floor

D. on every floor
Q. 191. A sign reading “IN CASE OF FIRE, USE STAIRS UNLESS OTHERWISE INSTRUCTED” shall be posted and maintained on every floor of a Class E office building. The sign shall be posted

A. at the elevator landing

B. at all stairwell doors

C. at each cubicle

D. in each hallway

A. at the elevator landing
Q. 190. Several types of safety signs may be posted at various locations inside the building. The signs are designed to ensure the safety of occupants. The FSD make sure that exit signs posted above doors are always .

A. illuminated

B. made of tempered glass

C. 3 inches above the door frame

D. red with white lettering

A. illuminated
Q. 189. In buildings classified in occupancy group E, 100 feet or more in height, the number of elevators that shall be kept available for immediate use by the fire department during all hours of the night and day, including holidays and Sundays, shall be

A. every car, where a floor is serviced by two or less elevator cars

B. at least four elevator cars, where a floor is serviced by more than three elevator cars

C. every car, where a floor is serviced by three or less elevator cars

D. at least four elevator cars, where a floor is serviced by more than four elevator car

C. every car, where a floor is serviced by three or less elevator cars
Q. 188. The fire command station located in the lobby of the building shall contain the following except:

A. display lamps to indicate position of passenger elevators

B. means for activating the audible alarm systems automatically when use of the loud speakers are terminated

C. means for silencing the audible alarm signals when the loud speakers are in use

D. means for testing the display lamps, local alarms and the connection to the central station

A. display lamps to indicate position of passenger elevators
Q. 187. The fire command station shall be located in the lobby of the building on the entrance floor as part of the elevator control panel or immediately adjacent thereto. Such command station shall be adequately illuminated and shall contain the following except:

A. loud speaker and communication capability

B. audible alarm signal

C. manually reset information display system to indicate the floor where the alarm was activated

D. means to control the sounding devices on every other floor of the building

D. means to control the sounding devices on every other floor of the building (on EVERY floor).
Q.186. A smoke detector or stand-alone fire alarm system which is interconnected with a base building fire alarm system, including a smoke detector that automatically activates a fire suppression/extinguishing system, is called

A. a Sub-system

B. an Auxiliary-system

C. a Tenant-system

D. a Supplementary-system

A. a Sub-system
Q. 185. A signal received at the Fire Command Station indicating the need for action in connection with a fire alarm or fire suppression system, or with the maintenance of other protective systems or with guard supervision, is called ..

A. a Trouble Signal

B. a Protective Signal

C. a Supervisory Signal.

D. a Suppression Signal

C. a Supervisory Signal.
Q. 184.A smoke detector maintenance log book shall be maintained on the premises in the office of the fire safety director. In the absence of a fire safety director, the book may be kept

A. in the building property managers office

B. in the building engineer’s office

C. in the Fire Command Station cabinet

D. in any secure building location

B. in the building engineer’s office
Q. 183. How often must all smoke detectors be tested to ensure that the detector is operational and responds as intended?

A. semi-annually

B. monthly

C. bi-monthly

D. annually

D. annually
Q. 182. Smoke detectors should not be placed within how many feet of an air supply register or return.

A. three feet

B. one foot

C. two feet

D. six feet

A. three feet
Q. 181. Smoke detectors should be placed on the ceiling or high on a wall. Dead air spaces should be avoided. Where does dead air spaces occur?

A. in the middle of the ceiling

B. all areas of the room above 6 feet

C. the four sides of a room where the walls meet each other

D. at the top edge of a room where the ceiling and wall meet.

D. at the top edge of a room where the ceiling and wall meet.
Q. 180. Which of the following statements about smoke detectors is accurate?

A. Heat detectors detect most fires much more rapidly than smoke detectors

B. Smoke detectors automatically detect a fire by sensing heat particles.

C. Smoke detectors can sense smoke particles even when they are not visible.

D. Smoke detectors are helpful, cant provide an early warning of the fire

C. Smoke detectors can sense smoke particles even when they are not visible.
Q. 179. How often should smoke detectors be tested for sensitivity?

A. quarterly

B. twice a year

C. every other month

D. every year

D. every year
Q. 178. Smoke detectors shall undergo a cleaning procedure in accordance with manufacturer’s specifications at what intervals?

A. at least annually

B. at least every three months

C. at least every six months

D. at least twice a year

C. at least every six months
Q. 177. An alarm transmitted to the Fire Department for which the detector system functioned for other than its intended purpose. Causes may be: lack of maintenance, improper detector placement, improper system installation, induced electrical currents, improper detector setting for installed location, computer console malfunction, etc. This type of alarm is called

A. a unwarranted alarm

B. an unintended alarm

C. an improper alarm

D. an unnecessary alarm

A. a unwarranted alarm
Q. 176. An alarm transmitted to the Fire Department for which the system functioned as designed but apparatus response proved needless, would be called

A. a unwarranted alarm

B. an unnecessary alarm

C. an improvident alarm

D. an excessive alarm

B. an unnecessary alarm
Q. 175. In a certain type of smoke detector, a light source and a photosensitive sensor are so arranged that the rays from the light source do not normally fall on the photosensitive sensor. When smoke particles enter the light path, some of the light is scattered by reflection and refraction onto the sensor, causing the detector to respond. What is the names of this type of smoke detector?

A. photosensitive light scattering smoke detector

B. reflective light scattering smoke detector

C. refracted light scattering smoke detector

D. photoelectric light scattering smoke detector

C. refracted light scattering smoke detector
Q. 174. An ionization smoke detector contains a material which ionizes the air in the sensing chamber, thus rendering it conductive and permitting a current to flow between two charged electrodes. This gives the sensing chamber an effective electrical conductance. When smoke particles enter the ionization area, they decrease the conductance of the air by attaching themselves to the ions, causing a reduction in mobility. When the conductance is less than a predetermined level, the detector responds. What material ionizes the air in the sensing chamber?

A. a small amount of magnesium

B. a small amount of radioactive material

C. a small amount of copper material

D. a small amount of hydrogen gas

B. a small amount of radioactive material
Q. 173. A deluge sprinkler system is designed to wet down an entire area in the case of a fire. This system is needed when there is danger of a fire rapidly spreading throughout the building. Deluge systems are suitable for hazardous occupancies, e.g., buildings in which flammable liquids or other hazardous materials are handled or stored.

Which of the following statements is accurate?

A. Sprinkler heads in the deluge system are open at all times. Under normal conditions there is no water in the piping, and the air in the piping is under pressure.

B. Sprinkler heads in the deluge system are open at all times. Under normal conditions there is no water in the piping. Its water control valve may not be opened manually.

C. Sprinkler heads in the deluge system are closed at all times. Under normal conditions there is no water in the piping, and the air in the piping is not under pressure.

D. Sprinkler heads in the deluge system are open at all times. Under normal conditions there is no water in the piping, and the air in the piping is not under pressure.

D. Sprinkler heads in the deluge system are open at all times. Under normal conditions there is no water in the piping, and the air in the piping is not under pressure – valve may be opened manually.
Q. 172. The latest type of sprinkler head is called the “cycling sprinkler”. This sprinkler cycles water on and off depending on the temperature. When the disk reaches a certain temperature the valve opens, permitting water to flow. When the disk temperature cools the valve closes to shut off the water. At what temperature does the valve open?

A. 165° F

B. 175° F

C. 160° F

D. 180° F

A. 165° F
Q. 171. Sprinkler heads are made of metal and are screwed into the piping at standard intervals. The water is prevented from leaving the sprinkler head by an arrangement of levers and links whichare soldered together on the sprinkler head. How many psi is the sprinkler head designed to withstand without injury or leakage?

A. at least 1000 psi

B. up to 400 psi

C. up to 300 psi

D. at least 500 psi

D. at least 500 psi
Q. 170. The caps of each siamese connection used for combination standpipe and sprinkler systems shall be painted:

A. yellow

B. aluminum

C. green/white

D. red/green

A. yellow
Q. 169. The entire siamese connection of a non-automatic sprinkler system shall be painted

A. red

B. white

C. yellow

D. aluminum

D. aluminum
Q.168. Where siamese connections are installed, metal signs shall be fastened to or above the siamese connection indicating the area protected. The caps of each automatic sprinkler siamese connection shall be painted

A. red

B. green

C. white

D. aluminum

B. green
Q. 167. A supply of how many sprinkler heads shall be kept available on the premises, to replace promptly any fused or damaged sprinklers.

A. at least a dozen

B. at least six extra

C. at least 3 for each floor

D. 5 for each floor

B. at least six extra
Q. 166. How many kinds of fire alarm pull stations are there?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

B. 2
Q. 165. All fire alarm pull stations must be painted red, and must be securely mounted to the wall at what distance above the floor level?

A. 5 feet

B. 4½ feet

C. between 3.5 and 5 feet

D. between 3 and 4½ feet

C. between 3.5 and 5 feet
Q. 164. The interior fire alarm pull stations are positioned at the natural exits on each floor of the building. In larger buildings the fire alarm pull stations must be spaced so that the distance between stations does not exceed how many feet?

A. 50 feet

B. 100 feet

C. 150 feet

D. 200 feet

D. 200 feet
Q. 163. Activated alarm entries – Certain entries must be made when an Alarm is Activated. Which of the following choices shows a non-required entry?

A. the date and time the alarm activated

B. type and location of the device

C. the probable cause of the alarm

D. the identity of the building personnel who responded

D. the identity of the building personnel who responded
Q. 162. The name and the certificate of fitness number of the fire safety director on duty, and the time each tour of duty began and ended, shall be entered in the alarm log book

A. on a daily basis

B. weekly

C. twice a week

D. on a regular basis

A. on a daily basis
Q. 161. The cover of the log book shall bear the inscription, “ALARM LOG BOOK”, together with the name and address of the building. All entries shall be made in ink and dated. A separate log book shall be kept for each calendar year. Log books shall be retained for a period of how long from the date of the last entry?

A. five years

B. four years

C. three years

D. two years

C. three years
Q. 160. Any premises having a defined fire alarm system, must also maintain, on the premises, an alarm log book.

Read the following choices then select the inaccurate statement. The alarm log book

A. must always be kept at the Fire Command Station.

B. entries shall be made in chronological order

C. entries will record the location and causes of all alarm signals transmitted by such fire alarm system

D. shall be available for inspection by FD personnel responding to an alarm on the premises

A. must always be kept at the Fire Command Station – ok to keep in secure location during non Business Hours.
Q.159. Any combination of three unwarranted or unnecessary alarms is considered excessive if they occur within a

A. a 1 year period

B. an 18 month period

C. a 3 month period

D. a 6 months period

D. a 6 months period
Q.144. As per FD Hi Rise Unit Fire Alert Bulletin V, how often shall all elevators provided with “firefighters service,” be subjected to Phase I recall, and a minimum of one-floor operation on Phase II, to assure the system is maintained in proper operation order?

A. semi-annually

B. annually

C. bi-monthly

D. monthly

D. monthly
Q.145. As per FD Hi Rise Unit Fire Alert Bulletin X, whenever possible, an emergency evacuation should be supervised via instructions received from the FSD, Asst. FSD, or Floor Warden. If the instructions from those people are not forthcoming the

A. evacuation should be delayed for a reasonable period of time

B. FD should be contacted for guidance

C. occupants should utilize the nearest safe stair to descend to the lobby at street level

D. occupants should utilize the nearest safe stair to descend to a location 2 floors below the “alarm floor”

D. occupants should utilize the nearest safe stair to descend to a location 2 floors below the “alarm floor”
Q.146. How often should automatic and non-automatic sprinkler systems be inspected by a competent person holding a certificate of fitness, employed by the owner, in order to see that all parts of the system are in perfect working order?

A. at least twice a month

B. at least once a month

C. at least once a weekly

D. at least twice a year

B. at least once a month