Nutrition Midterm

1) Which of the following is the best definition of essential nutrients?

a) Nutrients a person must consume to build muscle
b) Nutrients a person must consume in the diet to maintain health
c) Nutrients that should be taken as supplements
d) Nutrients that are provided by animal foods only

B
2) The unit of measure that is used in nutrition science that expresses the amount of energy provided by a food is a(n):

a) calorie.
b) nutrient.
c) nutrient-dense food.
d) unit of glucose.

A
3) The term “calorie” is used in nutrition to mean the

a) amount of energy a food item provides when eaten.
b) amount of fat a food item contains.
c) heat contained within a food item.
d) total nutrient content of a food item.

A
4) Which of the following statements about fortified foods is false?

a) Fortification of foods began to help eliminate nutrient deficiencies in the population.
b) Milk with added vitamin D is an example of food fortification.
c) Voluntary food fortification may increase the likelihood of consuming an excess of some nutrients.
d) Voluntary fortification of foods is at the discretion of the federal government

D
5) Substances found in plant foods that are not essential nutrients but may have health-promoting properties are

a) amino acids.
b) dietary supplements.
c) phytochemicals.
d) zoochemicals.

C
6) Which of the following statements regarding phytochemicals is true?

a) They are essential for life.
b) They are always harmful to our health.
c) They are found in plant foods.
d) They contribute to the calories that we eat in our diet.

C
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7) Foods that have health-promoting and/or disease-preventing properties beyond basic nutritional functions are called

a) essential foods.
b) fortified foods.
c) functional foods.
d) phytochemicals

C
8) Which would be best described as an emotional or psychologically- driven food choice?

a) Eating chocolate or ice cream after a bad day at work
b) Eating corn on the cob when in season
c) Eating ethnic foods you ate as a child
d) Eating foods specific to religious practices

A
9) All of the following are macronutrients except

a) carbohydrate.
b) lipids.
c) protein.
d) vitamins.

D
10) All of the following are examples of carbohydrates except

a) fiber.
b) proteins.
c) starches.
d) sugars.

B
11) All of the following are examples of lipids except

a) cholesterol.
b) saturated fat.
c) sugars.
d) unsaturated fat.

C
12) Which of the following statements about proteins is false?

a) Dietary protein from animal sources better matches the amino acid needs of humans compared to dietary protein derived from plants sources.
b) Proteins are composed of amino acids.
c) Proteins are made of amino acids, vitamins, and minerals.
d) Proteins differ based on the combinations of amino acids used in each type of protein.

C
13) With the exception of _______, all the classes of nutrients are involved in forming and maintaining the body’s structure.

a) carbohydrates
b) lipids
c) minerals
d) vitamins

D
14) The three main functions of nutrients include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) contributing to the structure of our body.
b) providing us with energy.
c) regulating biological processes in the body.
d) speeding up our metabolism.

D
15) Gram per gram, ______ provide the most kcalories.

a) alcohol
b) carbohydrates
c) lipids
d) proteins

C
16) Which of the following is associated with overnutrition?

a) Anemia
b) Failure to thrive
c) Obesity and Type 2 diabetes
d) Osteoporosis

C
17) A deficient intake of _______ is known to produce osteoporosis.

a) calcium
b) iron
c) Vitamin A
d) Vitamin C

A
18) A deficient intake of ___________ is known to produce scurvy.

a) iron
b) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D

C
19) Some nutrient deficiencies occur quickly, whereas others take more time to develop. Which of the following nutrient deficiencies are listed in the order reflecting most quickly to least quickly?

a) Dehydration, osteoporosis, scurvy
b) Scurvy, dehydration, osteoporosis
c) Osteoporosis, dehydration, scurvy
d) Dehydration, scurvy, osteoporosis

D
20) The top three causes of death in the US include stroke, cancer, and heart disease. All of these conditions are thought to be exacerbated by

a) high intake of diet soda.
b) lack of sleep.
c) low intake of phytochemicals.
d) obesity.

D
21) Ethan achieves his recommended intake of vegetables by eating a large baked potato every day. Which principle is he not achieving?

a) balance
b) moderation
c) nutrient density
d) variety

D
22) Which of the following statements illustrates the concept of variety?

a) If you can eat some extra fries, take a long walk in the afternoon.
b) Reduce your portions by using smaller bowls.
c) Skip the seconds or split your restaurant meal with a friend.
d) Try a new vegetable every week.

D
23) If you know you are going to order dessert at dinner tonight, which of these choices would illustrate the concept of balancing your choices?

a) Choosing a salad with fat-free salad dressing for lunch
b) Eating a big lunch as you will ‘blow’ your diet tonight anyway
c) Skipping breakfast
d) All of these illustrate balance.

A
24) Which is NOT an example of moderation in your diet and lifestyle?

a) Going back for seconds on all dinner items, rather than just the item you like best
b) Eating dessert occasionally
c) Balancing an extra dessert with extra exercise
d) Sharing a restaurant entrée or dessert with your dinner companion

A
25) Which of the following represents the correct order of steps of the scientific method?

a) Conduct the experiment, develop a hypothesis, form a theory, make an observation
b) Develop a hypothesis, conduct the experiment, make an observation, form a theory
c) Form a theory, conduct the experiment, develop a hypothesis, make an observation
d) Make an observation, develop a hypothesis, conduct the experiment, form a theory

D
26) In nutrition, the scientific method is used to

a) develop nutrient recommendations.
b) learn about the role of nutrition in promoting health and preventing disease.
c) understand the functions of nutrients.
d) all of these choices.

D
27) The observations and hypotheses that arise from epidemiology can be tested using
a) clinical trials.
b) control group design.
c) experimental group design.
d) the peer review process.
A
28) _______ are studies that explore the effects of altering people’s diets.

a) Animal studies
b) Clinical trials
c) Epidemiological studies
d) Molecular biology studies

B
29) For any nutrition study to provide reliable information, it must

a) be interpreted accurately.
b) collect quantifiable data from the right experimental population.
c) use proper experimental controls.
d) All of these are essential.

D
30) In a scientific experiment, the group of participants used as a basis of comparison is the _______ group.

a) control
b) experimental
c) placebo
d) treatment

A
31) Which of the following is not a peer-reviewed journal?

a) The American Journal of Clinical Nutrition
b) The International Journal of Sport Nutrition
c) The Journal of the American Dietetic Association
d) Men’s Health

D
32) All of the following statements are true regarding components of a nutrition study that provides reliable information except that

a) data must be quantifiable.
b) proper experimental controls should be used.
c) personal testimonials are appropriate type of data to collect.
d) the data must be interpreted accurately.

C
33) After a nutrition experiment is completed, a report describing the project is read, analyzed, and evaluated by two or more researchers who were not involved in the research study. Before the article is published, they examine it to ensure that the experiment was not flawed and that the results were interpreted correctly. This process is called

a) experimental consultation.
b) experimental design.
c) journal critique.
d) peer review.

D
34) When judging nutrition information, which is the least important factor?

a) How many people authored the study report
b) How the study was funded
c) The design of the study
d) What type of literature the study was published in

A
35) A registered dietitian is a nutrition professional who

a) has earned at least a bachelor degree in a nutrition-related field.
b) has met national certification requirements to provide nutrition education.
c) is an excellent source of credible nutrition information.
d) a registered dietitian is all of these.

D
36) Foods with a high nutrient density contain more nutrients per calorie than do foods with a lower nutrient density.
True
37) Typically, less processed foods have lower nutrient density.
False
38) A slice of apple pie has the same nutrient density as eating a medium-size apple.
False
39) Dietary supplements provide nutrients and all the other benefits of food.
False
40) Phytochemicals are found in plant foods and are classified as an essential nutrient.
False
41) Dietary supplements can be a source of nutrients and calories.
False
42) The simplest functional foods are unmodified whole foods, such as broccoli, blueberries, and salmon.
True
43) Food provides sensory pleasure and helps to meet our emotional needs.
True
44) Food preferences and eating habits are learned as part of an individual’s family, cultural, national, and social background.
True
45) Minerals are classified as micronutrients.
True
46) Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are all organic compounds that provide energy to the body.
True
47) Minerals are organic molecules that are needed in small amounts to maintain health.
False
48) Water makes up about 60% of an adult’s body weight.
True
49) Water, vitamins, and minerals do not provide energy.
True
50) Alcohol, although it is not a nutrient because it is not needed for life, provides about 7 calories per gram.
True
51) All six classes of nutrients play important roles in regulating body processes.
True
52) Over time, consuming excess or insufficient amounts of one or more nutrients will result in malnutrition.
True
53) Malnutrition is a condition resulting from an energy or nutrient intake either above or below that which is optimal.
True
54) Dehydration can cause symptoms in a matter of hours.
True
55) Chronic overconsumption of kcalories and certain nutrients from foods can cause health problems.
True
56) It has been estimated that about 25% of deaths in the United States can be attributed to poor diet and a sedentary lifestyle.
False
57) Your genetic makeup determines the impact a certain nutrient will have on you.
True
58) Nutrigenomics explores the interaction between genetic variation and nutrition.
True
59) A healthy diet is based on variety, balance, and moderation.
True
60) Choosing a variety of foods is important because no single food can provide all the nutrients the body needs for optimal health.
True
61) Moderation is a concept that makes it easier to balance your diet and include the foods you like.
True
62) Making varied choices both from the different food groups and from within each food group is important because nutrients and other food components interact.
True
63) Healthy eating requires you to give up your favorite low nutrient-dense foods.
False
64) A varied diet also balances the calories you take in with the calories you use up in your daily activities so that your body weight stays in the health range.
False
65) A hypothesis is a proposed explanation for an observation or scientific problem that can be tested through experimentation.
True
1) In 1894, the first dietary recommendations in the US were published by the _____. The purpose of these recommendations was to _____.

a) FDA, keep Americans healthy
b) FDA, show Americans what a balance diet looked like
c) USDA, keep Americans healthy
d) USDA, show Americans what a balanced diet looked like

C
2) The set of health promotion and disease prevention objectives that is revised every 10 years are the ________________.

a) Dietary Allowances
b) Healthy People objectives
c) USDA Food Guidance System
d) US Diet Requirements

B
3) Nutrition recommendations are developed to:

a) address the nutritional concerns of the population.
b) evaluate the nutrient intake of populations.
c) help individuals meet their specific nutrient needs.
d) All of these are true.

D
4) All of the following are characteristics of the Dietary Reference Intakes EXCEPT:

a) the standards are designed to prevent nutrient deficiency.
b) the standards are designed to reduce the risk of chronic disease.
c) there are two sets of standards, one for healthy people and one for when someone is sick.
d) they can be used to determine if a person’s diet provides adequate amounts of the essential nutrients.

C
5) DRIs vary based on each of these EXCEPT:

a) age.
b) gender.
c) lifestyle stage.
d) race.

D
6) Which nutrient intake recommendation is used as a goal when a Recommended Dietary Allowance does not exist?

a) Adequate Intake
b) Estimated Average Requirement
c) Estimated Energy Requirement
d) Tolerable Upper Intake Level

A
7) The DRI that is most commonly used to determine the nutritional value of individual diets are the:

a) Adequate Intakes.
b) Estimated Average Requirements.
c) Recommended Dietary Allowances.
d) Tolerable Upper Intake Levels.

C
8) As intake rises above the UL, the likelihood of _____ increases.

a) deficiency
b) normalcy
c) toxicity
d) nutrient density

C
9) All of the following are variables that increase the Estimated Energy Requirement except:

a) a child who grows taller.
b) adding 20 minutes per day of physical activity.
c) getting older.
d) adding muscle mass by weight lifting.

C
10) The energy recommendation that describes the proportions of calories that should come from carbohydrate, fat, and protein are the:

a) AIs.
b) AMDRs.
c) DRIs.
d) EARS.

B
11) According to the AMDR, the majority of calories you eat should come from:

a) carbohydrates.
b) fat.
c) protein.
d) vitamins.

A
12) Which of the following statements regarding the AMDRs is false?

a) They allow flexibility in food intake patterns.
b) They are available for vitamins and minerals.
c) They are used in conjunction with the EER.
d) They are intended to promote diets that minimize disease risk.

B
13) All of the following are nutrient-dense protein sources EXCEPT:

a) almonds.
b) bananas.
c) black beans.
d) sunflower seeds.

B
14) According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, maintaining a healthy body weight is emphasized by:

a) following a diet that provides fewer than 120 grams of carbohydrate daily.
b) following a diet with less than 10% of total calories from fat.
c) increasing protein intake.
d) moderating calorie intake.

D
15) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans promote a minimum of _____ minutes of moderate exercise weekly.

a) 40
b) 80
c) 120
d) 150

D
16) Which of the following is NOT a key recommendation promoted by the Dietary Guidelines for Americans?

a) Consume less than 300 mg of dietary cholesterol daily.
b) Drink one glass of red wine daily.
c) Increase fruit and vegetable consumption.
d) Use oils to replace solid fats where possible.

B
17) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend that no more than ____ percent of calories come from saturated fat.

a) 5
b) 7
c) 10
d) 12

C
18) Which of the following groups of individuals is(are) recommended to consume less than 1500 mg of sodium daily?

a) Adults 51 and older
b) African Americans
c) Those with diabetes and/or hypertension
d) All of these individuals are advised to consume less than 1500 mg/daily.

D
19) MyPlate:

a) divides foods into 4 groups.
b) illustrates the appropriate proportions of food.
c) replaces the Dietary Guidelines for Americans.
d) All of these are characteristic of MyPlate.

B
20) Which of the following is not a component of the DASH diet?

a) Consuming plenty of whole grains, nuts and seeds.
b) Consuming full-fat dairy products.
c) Eating plenty of fruits and vegetables.
d) Increasing foods rich in calcium and magnesium.

B
21) Which of the following is promoted by the Mediterranean Eating Pattern?

a) Eating poultry and eggs daily.
b) Consuming full-fat dairy products frequently.
c) Eating red meat and sweets less often.
d) Limiting consumption of nuts and seeds.

C
22) To decrease your chance of getting a food-borne illness, you should:

a) cut your fresh produce and raw meat on the same cutting board to limit waste.
b) eat your fresh fruits and vegetables without washing them first to preserve the nutritional value.
c) order your steaks rare to medium-well in doneness.
d) wash your hands frequently.

D
23) Discretionary calories come from:

a) alcohol and added sugars.
b) added sugars and solid fats.
c) alcohol and solid fats.
d) Alcohol, added sugars, and solid fats.

D
24) Which of the following is NOT considered to be a source of empty calories?

a) Donuts and other pastries
b) Soft drinks and candy
c) Table sugar and butter
d) Oils

D
25) On the food label, a %DV is NOT required for:

a) monounsaturated fats.
b) saturated fats.
c) total fat.
d) trans fat.

A
26) The _____ is a reference value for the intake of nutrients used on the food label.

a) Adequate Intake
b) Daily Value
c) Estimated Average Requirement
d) Recommended Dietary Allowance

B
27) The Daily Value amounts listed in the Nutrition Facts panel are based on a _____ calorie diet.

a) 1500
b) 1800
c) 2000
d) 2500

C
28) If Joe consumed 2500 calories daily, he would need to consume ____ the %DV listed in the Nutrition Facts panel.

a) greater than
b) less than
c) the same as

A
29) Which of the following pieces of information is NOT required on the foods label?

a) Name of the product
b) Total weight or volume of the contents
c) Name, address and website of the manufacturer, distributor or packager
d) Ingredients in descending order by weight

C
30) Where would you look on the food label to determine if sugar was added to the product?

a) Ingredients list
b) Front of the label
c) Nutrition Facts panel
d) Serving size information

A
31) A _____ claim refers to a relationship between a nutrient, food, or dietary supplement and a reduced risk of a disease.

a) Dietary
b) Health
c) Nutrient content
d) Structure/function

B
32) Nutrient content and health claims are approved by the:

a) FDA.
b) food manufacturer.
c) USDA.
d) US Department of Public Health.

A
33) For a dietary supplement to claim “high potency,” it must contain ____ percent of the Daily Value for the given nutrient based on the stated serving size.

a) 20
b) 50
c) 100
d) 125

C
34) Structure/function claims are:

a) approved by the FDA.
b) allowed on all food and supplement labels.
c) required to include a disclaimer that the product is not intended to diagnose, treat, cure or prevent any disease.
d) the same as health and nutrient claims.

C
35) Dietary supplements:

a) are approved by the FDA.
b) are exempt from providing any nutritional information.
c) are regulated as foods.
d) include multivitamin pills, herbs, and enzymes.

D
36) Overt nutrient deficiencies are now rare in the United States.
True
37) The Dietary Reference Intakes are only concerned with the correction of nutrient deficiencies.
False
38) The basic premise of federal dietary guidance has remained fairly unchanged, and it is to choose the right combinations of foods to promote health.
True
39) The purpose of a food guide is to translate nutrient intake recommendations into recommended food choices.
True
40) A limitation of the information obtained from population health and nutrition surveys is that the information cannot be used if the nation is meeting health and nutrition goals.
False
41) A complete assessment of an individual’s nutritional status includes a diet analysis, physical exam, medical history, and laboratory tests.
True
42) A person’s nutritional status is influenced by his/her intake and utilization of nutrients.
True
43) The DRIs tell you how much of each nutrient you need and help you choose foods that will meet these needs.
False
44) For most nutrients, exceeding the Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (UL) through food consumption is difficult.
True
45) For all nutrients, Tolerable Upper Intake (UL) Levels are set for intakes from dietary supplements only.
False
46) The EARs are set higher than the RDAs.
False
47) For many foods, there is no UL because too little information is available to determine it.
True
48) The Estimated Energy Requirements (EERs) estimate calorie needs to promote weight loss among adults.
False
49) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are designed to promote health and reduce the risk of overweight, obesity, and chronic diseases in toddlers.
False
50) The Dietary Guidelines recommend that at least half of your grains come from whole grain sources.
True
52) Losing weight requires burning fewer calories than you consume.
False
53) MyPlate was designed to put the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines into practice.
True
54) Following the MyPlate food guide is the healthiest plan to follow.
False
55) A fundamental premise of the Dietary Guidelines is that nutrients should come primarily from foods.
True
56) According to MyPlate, half of your plate should be fruits and vegetables.
True
57) The DASH eating plan includes more servings per day of fruits and vegetables than MyPlate.
True
58) Oatmeal and brown rice are whole grains.
True
59) Canned and dried fruit are not as nutritious as fresh fruit, and should be avoided in a healthy diet.
False
60) Beans and peas are good sources of the nutrients found in both vegetables and protein foods, so they can be counted in either food group.
True
61) MyPlate emphasizes the importance of proportionality, moderation, and nutrient density, but not variety.
False
62) Some empty calories come from foods that belong to a food group but contain added sugars and fats.
True
63) Limiting empty calories is important as they provide mostly calories and fewer nutrients.
True
64) Food labels are designed to help consumers make wise food choices at the point of purchase.
True
65) Restaurants, upon request, must be able to provide consumers with the nutritional information of the foods served.
True
66) A qualified health claim does not have the same amount of research to support it as a health claim.
True
67) An ingredient list is required on all products containing more than one ingredient.
True
68) Ingredients on a food label are listed in descending order by weight.
True
69) Food additives must be included in the ingredients list.
True
70) All health claims are reviewed by the food manufacturer before printed on the food label.
False
1) Which of the following is the correct order, from smallest unit to largest?

a) atoms → cells → molecules → tissues
b) atoms → molecules → cells → tissues
c) cells → molecules → tissues → cells
d) molecules → atoms → cells → tissues

B
2) The smallest units of life are

a) atoms.
b) cells.
c) organs.
d) tissues.

B
3) The pancreas is part of the endocrine system and also part of the digestive system.
True
4) The ____ system aids the digestive system by secreting hormones which regulate how much we eat and how quickly food and nutrients travel through the digestive system.

a) cardiovascular
b) endocrine
c) integumentary
d) nervous

B
6) When you eat a taco, the tortilla, meat, cheese, lettuce, and tomato are broken apart, releasing the nutrients and other food components they contain. This process is called

a) absorption.
b) digestion.
c) neutralization.
d) transit.

B
7) Which of the following substances is not absorbed by the human body?

a) Amino acids
b) Fatty acids
c) Fiber
d) Sugars

C
8) Which of the following is digested before being absorbed?

a) Minerals
b) Protein
c) Vitamins
d) Water

B
9) Proteins are broken down into _____ whereas fats are digested mostly into _____.

a) amino acids, sugars
b) amino acids, fatty acids
c) fatty acids, sugars
d) glucose, vitamins

B
10) The time it takes food to travel the length of the GI tract is called the transit time.
True
11) Sugars, amino acids, and fatty acids are absorbed into the body.
True
14) The gastrointestinal tract is a hollow tube that begins at the mouth and ends at the colon.
False
15) Food still in the lumen is not available for use by the cells.
True
16) Factors that influence transit time include all of the following EXCEPT the

a) composition of the meal.
b) emotional status of the individual.
c) use of certain medications.
d) all of these influence transit time.

D
17. The mucosa has high nutrient requirements and will show signs of nutrient deficiency early.
True
18) _____ lubricates, moistens, and protects the cells within the mucosa.

a) Bile
b) Enzymes
c) Lumen
d) Mucus

D
19) Amylase is a hormone that digests carbohydrates.
False
20) Enzymes are substrate specific, meaning that lipases will only digest lipids.
True
21) Protein molecules that increase the rate of specific chemical reactions without themselves being changed are

a) enzymes.
b) hormones.
c) mucus.
d) nerves.

A
22. The gastrointestinal tract is part of the endocrine system because it releases ___ that regulate digestion and the rate at which food moves through the digestive system.

a) enzymes
b) hormones
c) mucus
d) nerves

B
23) The ____ is responsible for swallowing and is also a part of the respiratory tract.

a) epiglottis
b) esophagus
c) mouth
d) pharynx

D
24) Bicarbonate neutralizes the acid in chyme, which allows ___ from the pancreas and small intestine to function.

a) capillaries
b) enzymes
c) hormones
d) lacteals

B
25) The slow movement of food stuff through the _____ favors the growth of microflora.

a) large intestine
b) pancreas
c) small intestine
d) stomach

A
26) The first location of chemical and mechanical digestion is the stomach.
False
27) During swallowing, the air passages are blocked by a flap of tissue called the pharynx.
False
28) The majority of absorption occurs in the stomach.
False
30) Chewing food begins mechanical digestion and breaks up fiber.
True
31) The mass of chewed food that is swallowed is called

a) bicarbonate.
b) the bolus.
c) chyme.
d) pepsin.

B
32) When the epiglottis doesn’t move correctly, it can lead to

a) choking.
b) constipation.
c) heartburn.
d) vomiting.

A
33) What might occur if the sphincter denoted here doesn’t close correctly, and some of the contents from the stomach enter into the esophagus?
a) Choking
b) Constipation
c) Heartburn
d) Peptic ulcers
C
34) _____ is a circular muscle that acts as a valve, opening and closing to allow the gastric contents to move throughout the GI tract.

a) Connective tissue
b) The lumen
c) A sphincter
d) The rectum

C
35) The gastric pits produce each of the following EXCEPT

a) an inactive form of pepsin.
b) hydrochloric acid.
c) mucus.
d) salivary amylase.

D
36) The stomach

a) serves as a temporary storage site.
b) contents are highly alkaline.
c) secretes lipases that complete fat digestion.
d) manufactures bile.

A
37) Trypsin and chymotrypsin are lipases.
False
38) Which of the following is NOT an end result of chemical digestion?

a) Amino acids
b) Fatty acids
c) Glucose
d) Protein

D
39) The intestinal microflora synthesize small amounts of vitamin D.
False
40) These yogurts are good sources of ____, which contain active cultures of beneficial bacteria.
a) fiber
b) prebiotics
c) probiotics
d) Vitamin E
C
41) Fiber retains water, thus when adequate fiber and fluids are consumed, feces have a higher water content and are more easily passed.
True
42) Glucose can be used to make fatty acids.
True
43) The regulation of stomach motility and secretion

a) does not vary based on the composition of the meal.
b) is affected by the food that has not yet reached the stomach.
c) is controlled in part by the hormone pepsin.
d) is not affected by the material that has exited the stomach.

B
44) A _____ meal stays in the stomach the longest.

a) high-carbohydrate
b) high-fat
c) high-protein
d) low-fat

B
45) The nutritional composition of a meal affects how long it stays in the stomach.
True
48) Each villus contains a capillary where fat-soluble nutrients are absorbed.
False
49) Collectively, the microvilli are referred as the brush border.
True
50) ____ neutralizes the acidic chyme as it enters the small intestine.

a) Bile
b) Bicarbonate
c) Gastrin
d) Pepsin

B
51) The transport of substances across a cell membrane with the aid of a carrier molecule and the expenditure of energy is

a) active transport.
b) facilitated diffusion.
c) osmosis.
d) simple diffusion.

A
52) Diffusion is the net movement of substances from an area of ___ concentration to an area of ___ concentration.

a) higher, lower
b) lower, higher
c) neither (there is no net movement)

A
53) Vitamin E and fatty acids are absorbed via

a) active transport.
b) facilitated diffusion.
c) osmosis.
d) simple diffusion.

D
54) Peyer’s patches, located in the mucosa of the small intestine, function to:

a) aid nutrients in entering the circulatory system.
b) enhance the functioning of digestive processes.
c) increase the motility of the gastrointestinal tract.
d) prevent harmful organisms present in the gastrointestinal tract from making us sick.

D
55) When an antigen is present, ____ are the first type of white blood cell to come to the body’s defense.

a) antigens
b) antibodies
c) lymphocytes
d) phagocytes

D
56) Food allergies have their origins in the GI tract.
True
57) Which of the following statements about food allergies is FALSE?

a) An allergen is the name referred to the substance that causes an allergic reaction.
b) As food is digested, fragments of undigested protein trigger production of antibodies.
c) Some of the most common ingredients that cause allergic reactions are peanuts, milk, and eggs.
d) The first time a food is consumed, it triggers an allergic reaction.

D
58) Which of the following is NOT a common food allergen?

a) eggs
b) milk
c) strawberries
d) wheat

C
59) A Helicobacter pylori infection can cause

a) constipation.
b) food allergies.
c) gallstones.
d) peptic ulcers.

D
60) The most common cause of peptic ulcers is misuse of medications such as aspirin or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
False
61) ____ is a chronic condition in which acidic stomach contents leak into the esophagus, causing pain and damaging the esophagus.

a) Constipation
b) GERD
c) Heartburn
d) Vomiting

B
62) Jasmine has gallstones and experiences severe pain when she eats. What substance should she avoid to try to reduce the pain she is experiencing?

a) Caffeinated coffee
b) French fries
c) Fresh fruits and vegetables
d) Peppermint and spearmint

B
63) Gallstones can interfere with bile secretions and reduce fat absorption.
True
64) In regard to blood circulation, if you begin with oxygen-poor blood that reaches the heart from the body and is pumped through arteries to capillaries of the lungs, then determine the order for the following: 1. In capillaries of the body, nutrients and oxygen move from the blood to body tissues. 2. Oxygen-rich blood returns to the heart from the lungs by veins. 3. In capillaries of the lungs, oxygen from inhaled air is picked up by the blood and carbon dioxide is released into the lungs and exhaled. 4. Oxygen-rich blood is pumped out of the heart into arteries leading to the body.

a) 1 → 3 → 4 → 2
b) 4 → 2 → 1 → 3
c) 3 → 2 → 4 → 1
d) 2 → 3 → 1 → 4

C
65) The lymphatic system is a circulatory system.
True
66) The exchange of nutrients and gases occurs across the thin walls of the

a) blood capillaries.
b) lacteals.
c) pharynx.
d) large intestine.

A
67) Lymph vessels from the intestine drain into the thoracic duct near the heart.
True
68) The hepatic portal circulation delivers nutrients from the lacteals to the liver.
False
69) As compared to when you are at rest between meals, when you have eaten a meal, a ____________ proportion of your blood goes to your digestive system.

a) smaller
b) the same
c) greater

C
70) As compared to when you are at rest between meals, when you are exercising, a ___________ proportion of your blood goes to your digestive system.

a) smaller
b) the same
c) greater

A
71) Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?

a) Aiding in the absorption of water-soluble substances
b) Containing infection-fighting cells
c) Draining fluid that collects in tissues and between cells
d) All of these are functions of the lymphatic system.

A
1) Which of the following is an example of an unrefined food?

a) Buttermilk pancake
b) Cornflakes cereal
c) Oatmeal
d) White bread

C
2) Increased consumption of refined carbohydrates in the past few decades has been implicated in causing obesity.
True
3) Whole-grain products include the endosperm, bran, and germ components of the grain.
True
4) Which section of the kernel is a rich source of vitamin E?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
C
5) The process of enrichment adds back all of the nutrients that are lost during processing.
True
6) Some foods made with refined grains can contain more of some nutrients and less of others than foods made from whole grains.
True
7) Refined sugars added to food during processing or at the table account for about 16% of the calories consumed in the typical American diet.
True
8) Which is less refined?

a) granola cereal
b) oatmeal

B
9) Refined sugars look chemically very different from sugars that occur naturally in foods.
False
10) Which of the following statements regarding glucose is FALSE?

a) Glucose is the main component of starch and glycogen.
b) Glucose is also called blood sugar.
c) Glucose is the most common disaccharide in our diet.
d) Glucose is the most important carbohydrate fuel for the human body.

C
11) Which of the following represents a monosaccharide:disaccharide:complex carbohydrate?

a) fructose:galactose:soluble fiber
b) glucose:maltose:lactose
c) glucose:sucrose:insoluble fiber
d) sucrose:lactose:galactose

C
12) Glycogen is the storage form of glucose in plants.
False
13. Glycogen’s highly-branched structure allows it to be broken down quickly when the body needs glucose.
True
14) Photosynthesis uses energy from the sun to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose.
True
15) Starch and dietary fiber are classified as:

a) complex carbohydrates.
b) monosaccharides.
c) refined sugars.
d) simple sugars.

A
16) Maltose and lactose are examples of complex carbohydrates.
False
17) _____ cannot be digested by human digestive enzymes.

a) Fiber
b) Glycogen
c) Maltose
d) Starch

A
18) Which of the following is a major dietary source of soluble fiber?

a) Beans
b) Broccoli
c) Maltose
d) Wheat bran

A
19) Pectin is a soluble fiber that is found in fruits and vegetables.
True
20) All of the following are good sources of insoluble fiber except:

a) a Granny Smith apple.
b) baked beans.
c) oatmeal.
d) wheat bran.

D
21) Which type of complex carbohydrates are depicted in the visual?
a) Insoluble fiber
b) Starch
c) Soluble fiber
d) Starch and Soluble fiber
D
22) Most starch digestion and breakdown of disaccharides occurs in which section of the GI tract?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
C
24) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the:

a) colon.
b) mouth.
c) small intestine.
d) stomach.

B
25) All carbohydrates are converted to glucose before they can be absorbed into the body.
False
26) Fiber and other indigestible carbohydrates are partially broken down by the bacteria in the:

a) large intestine.
b) mouth.
c) small intestine.
d) stomach.

A
27) People who are lactose intolerant:

a) do not produce enough insulin.
b) have an allergic reaction to lactose.
c) have inadequate production of the enzyme lactase.
d) produce excess amounts of pancreatic enzymes.

C
28) Why does someone who has lactose intolerance have gastrointestinal problems, such as abdominal distension, gas, cramping, and diarrhea?

a) The lactose is an irritant to the stomach.
b) The lactose in the small intestine neutralizes enzyme action.
c) The undigested lactose in the intestine draws water and bacteria.
d) The presence of lactose in the small intestine causes the gall bladder to contract more forcefully.

C
29) Because dairy products are the main source of calcium in the diet, all individuals with lactose intolerance should take a calcium supplement.
False
30) Which of the following statements regarding the incidence of lactose intolerance is incorrect?
a) Native Alaskans have the lowest incidence of lactose intolerance.
b)This map illustrates the dramatic variation in the incidence of lactose intolerance worldwide.
c) Different races and ethnicities have varying rates of incidence of lactose intolerance.
d) Those living in South America have the lower incidence of lactose intolerance than those living in southern Africa.
A
31) Only the carbohydrates that are completely digested have an impact on overall health.
False
32) Legumes, unripe bananas, and cold, cooked potatoes are high in resistant starch.
True
33) Fiber can bind certain minerals, preventing their absorption.
True
34) Which of the following conclusions can be accurately drawn from the results depicted in this visual?
a) Following a high-fiber diet increases transit time.
b) Following a low-fiber diet decreases transit time.
c) Following a low-fiber diet adds weight to the weight.
d) Stool weights are greater and transit times are shorter for Ugandan villagers.
D
35) The glycemic index is a measure of:

a) how enzymes metabolize nutrients.
b) how an ingested food potentially affects blood glucose levels.
c) the livers’ ability to convert fructose to glucose.
d) the muscles’ use of glycogen for energy.

B
36) Unrefined carbohydrates cause a greater glycemic response than refined sugars.
False
38) Line A shows the glycemic response after eating potatoes. Which of the following foods is most likely to cause a glycemic response similar to that shown in line A?
a) Dinner roll
b) Peanut butter
c) Egg
d) Cheddar cheese
A
39) The glycemic index is a measure of how quickly and how high blood glucose levels rise after carbohydrates are consumed.
True
40) The main function of carbohydrates in the body is to:

a) conduct nerve impulses.
b) enhance immune cell functioning.
c) provide energy.
d) stimulate genetic productivity in cells.

C
41) All of the following are characteristics of insulin except that:

a) it is a hormone.
b) prevents glucose from entering cells.
c) stimulates the synthesis of protein, fat, and glycogen.
d) is secreted by the pancreas.

B
42) The rise in blood glucose levels after eating stimulates the pancreas to secrete the hormone ___, causing blood glucose levels to ____.

a) glucagon, drop
b) glucagon, rise
c) insulin, drop
d) insulin, rise

C
43) Which of the following best describes the effect of a fiber-rich meal on the rise in blood glucose that occurs after a meal?

a) The rise in blood glucose will occur more quickly
b) There will be no effect on the rise in blood glucose
c) The rise in blood glucose will be delayed
d) None of these choices

C
44) In both muscle and liver cells, insulin promotes the conversion of glucose into glycogen for immediate use.
False
45) Glucagon:

a) stimulates the breakdown of liver glycogen.
b) promotes the synthesis of glucose.
c) raises blood glucose levels.
d) all of these choices

D
46) Anaerobic metabolic pathway that splits glucose into two 3-carbon pyruvate molecules:

a) gluconeogensis
b) glycolysis
c) ketone formation
d) glucagon

B
47) Compared to anaerobic metabolism of carbohydrate, aerobic metabolism of carbohydrates produces _______ ATP molecules for each glucose molecule.

a) more
b) the same amount of
c) fewer

A
48) Oxygen is needed for glycolysis to occur.
False
49) The first step in cellular respiration is glycolysis, or the synthesis of glucose molecules.
False
50) In cellular respiration, the most ATP is produced in the final step of aerobic metabolism.
True
51) Body proteins that are broken down to make glucose are no longer available to do their job, like to speed up a chemical reaction or to contract a muscle.
True
52) When there is not sufficient carbohydrate to completely metabolize fatty acids, these molecules form:

a) amino acids.
b) carbon dioxide.
c) ketones.
d) oligosaccharides.

C
54) Fatty acids cannot be used to make glucose because:

a) they are metabolized only by anaerobic processes.
b) they do not have enough energy in their molecular structure to generate glucose molecules.
c) the reactions that break them down produce two-carbon molecules.
d) the products of their metabolism combine too quickly to form other compounds that the body uses for energy.

C
55) Mild ketosis can occur during times of starvation or when consuming a low-carbohydrate weight-loss plan.
True
56) Normal blood glucose level is expected to be less than ___ milligrams/100 milliliters of blood after an 8-hour fast.

a) 100
b) 125
c) 140
d) 180

A
57)__________ is a condition in which blood glucose levels are above normal, but not high enough to be diagnosed as diabetes.

a) Type 1diabetes
b) Gestational diabetes
c) Type 2 diabetes
d) Prediabetes

D
59) _____ is caused by an autoimmune destruction of insulin-producing cells in the pancreas.

a) Gestational diabetes
b) Prediabetes
c) Type 1 diabetes
d) Type 2 diabetes

C
60) Your friend Jason has diabetes and developed hypoglycemia. Of the following situations, which is the most likely reason why he developed hypoglycemia?

a) He ate too much refined carbohydrate.
b) He drank too much water.
c) He took too much of his medication that is used to control his blood sugar.
d) It was probably warm outside and he sweat excessively.

C
1) Which of the following is not a function of fat in foods?

a) Aroma
b) Flavor
c) Grittiness
d) Texture

C
2) Sources of hidden fat in our diet include

a) cheese and ice cream
b) doughnuts and cookies
c) muffins and French fries
d) All of these are sources of hidden fat

D
3) In the past 40 years, total fat intake has:

a) decreased
b) increased
c) changed very little

A
4) Which of the following would not lessen the amount of fat consumed?

a) Choosing chicken instead of beef
b) Consuming fewer eggs
c) Eating fruit instead of vegetables
d) Switching to low-fat milk from whole milk

C
5) The lipid that makes up most of the lipids in our body is:

a) cholesterol
b) lecithin
c) phospholipid
d) triglyceride

D
6) _________ is an important component of cell membranes, forming a lipid bilayer by orienting the water-soluble portion towards the water environment.

a) Cholesterol
b) Phospholipid
c) Saturated fatty acid
d) Triglyceride

B
7) The majority of _______ is located in cell membranes, but is also a part of myelin, the insulating coating on nerve cells.

a) cholesterol
b) omega-3 fatty acids
c) phospholipids
d) triglycerides

A
8) ________, when consumed in the diet, can help reduce blood cholesterol levels.

a) Animal fat
b) Calcium
c) Plant sterols
d) Vitamin D

C
9) The best-known phospholipid used by the food industry to prevent oil from separating from other ingredients is ________.

a) bile
b) cholesterol
c) egg yolk
d) lecithin

D
10) The phospholipid lecithin is used to synthesize:

a) acetylcholine
b) plant sterols
c) testosterone
d) Vitamin D

A
11) __________ is needed in the body to make vitamin D, bile acids, and cortisol.

a) Cholesterol
b) Triglyceride
c) Phospholipid
d) Lipase

A
12) Which of the following is not a tropical oil?

a) Coconut oil
b) Palm kernel oil
c) Palm oil
d) Safflower oil

D
13) Examples of unsaturated fatty acids include:

a) coconut oil
b) corn oil
c) palm oil
d) plant sterols

B
14) Which of the following foods is the lowest in cholesterol?

a) Chicken
b) Peanut butter
c) Low fat yogurt
d) Salmon

B
15) Which of the following is a characteristic of essential fatty acids?

a) Cholesterol is an example of an essential fatty acid.
b) All omega-3 fatty acids are essential fatty acids.
c) The body cannot make these at all or in sufficient quantities to meet the body’s need.
d) They are metabolized at an extremely high rate as compared to other compounds.

C
16) Which of the following is not an essential fatty acid?

a) Alpha-linoleic acid
b) Linoleic acid
c) Omega-6 fatty acid
d) Trans fatty acid

D
17) The majority of lipid digestion occurs in the:

a) gallbladder
b) large intestine
c) small intestine
d) stomach

C
18) Particles formed in the small intestine when the products of fat digestion are surrounded by bile are:

a) chylomicrons
b) emulsifiers
c) lipoproteins
d) micelles

D
19) Lipids that are consumed in the diet are absorbed into the intestinal mucosal cells. From here, all of the following molecules, with the exception of ____, are not soluble in water, and are thus packaged for transport.

a) cholesterol
b) fat-soluble vitamins
c) long-chain fatty acids
d) small fatty acids

D
20) After long-chain fatty acids have been absorbed into the mucosal cells, they are re-assembled into:

a) cholesterol
b) fat-soluble vitamins
c) micelles
d) triglycerides

D
21) Which of the following are absorbed without digestion?

a) Fat-soluble vitamins
b) Long-chain fatty acids
c) Phospholipids
d) Triglycerides

A
22) An enzyme that digests lipids is:

a) amylase
b) lipase
c) protease
d) pepsin

B
23) Bile is:

a) produced by the liver
b) stored in the gallbladder
c) released in the small intestine
d) All of these

D
24) Which of the following is not a component of lipoprotein?

a) Bile
b) Cholesterol
c) Phospholipids
d) Protein

A
25) Since chylomicrons are too large to enter the capillaries in the small intestine, they pass into the:

a) gallbladder
b) large intestine
c) lymph
d) stomach

C
26) HDLs:

a) contain a high proportion of cholesterol.
b) function similarly to chylomicrons, transports lipids away from the liver.
c) return cholesterol from other lipoproteins and body cells to the liver.
d) are formed in the mucosal cell.

C
27) Lipoprotein lipase breaks down the triglycerides in chylomicrons into:

a) amino acids
b) cholesterol and fatty acids
c) glucose
d) glycerol
e) fatty acids and glycerol

E
28) The remains of chylomicrons:

a) are converted into glycerol
b) bind to an LDL receptor
c) consist mostly of free fatty acids
d) travel to the liver to be disassembled

D
29) Which two lipoproteins deliver triglycerides to body cells?

a) Chylomicrons & VLDL
b) HDL & LDL
c) LDL & VLDL
d) VLDL & HDL

A
30) Which lipoprotein contains the highest proportion of protein?

a) Chylomicron
b) HDL
c) LDL
d) VLDL

B
31) Which lipoprotein contains the highest proportion of cholesterol?

a) Chylomicron
b) HDL
c) LDL
d) VLDL

C
32) Which lipoprotein has the highest proportion of triglyceride?

a) Chylomicron
b) HDL
c) LDL
d) VLDL

A
33) Which lipoprotein picks up cholesterol from other lipoproteins and body cells and returns it to the liver?

a) Chylomicron
b) HDL
c) LDL
d) VLDL

B
34) High levels of ______ in the blood are associated with a reduction in the risk of heart disease.

a) chylomicrons
b) HDL
c) LDL
d) VLDL

B
35) Which of the following is not a function of lipids in the body?

a) Absorption of water-soluble vitamins
b) Insulation from changes in temperature
c) Source of energy
d) Structural component of cell membranes

A
36) The typical American diet has a ratio of omega-6 fatty acids to omega-3 fatty acids that is:

a) equal in the amounts of omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids for optimal health
b) higher in the amounts of omega-3 versus omega-6 fatty acids for optimal health
c) higher in the amounts of omega-6 versus omega-3 fatty acids for optimal health

C
37) Which of the following statements is false about omega-3 fatty acids?

a) Fish is a good food source.
b) High amounts in the diet help to lower blood pressure.
c) High amounts in the diet increase inflammation.
d) Walnuts, canola oil, and flaxseed are good food sources.

C
38) The ratio of omega-3 to omega-6 fatty acids impacts the production of which hormone-like molecule that helps regulate blood clotting?

a) Arachidonic acid
b) dha
c) Eicosanoids
d) Linoleic acid

C
39) The current U.S. diet contains a higher ratio of which fatty acid than is optimal for health?

a) DHA
b) EPA
c) omega-3
d) omega-6

D
40) ________ splits fatty acids into two-carbon units that form acetyl-CoA and releases high-energy electrons.

a) Anaerobic metabolism
b) Beta-oxidation
c) Lipoprotein lipase
d) The citric acid cycle

B
41) Each gram of fat from the diet contains __ calories.

a) 2
b) 4
c) 7
d) 9

D
42) Adipose tissue is best described as:

a) stored glucose
b) stored protein
c) stored triglycerides
d) stored cholesterol

C
43) Fates of triglycerides include all of the following except:

a) source of immediate energy
b) storage in adipose tissue
c) source of energy between meals
d) conversion to muscle tissue

A
44) If there is not enough carbohydrate available in cells to allow the acetyl-CoA to enter the citric acid cycle, it will be used to make ______.

a) chylomicrons
b) glucose
c) glycerol
d) ketones

D
45) In regard to the development of atherosclerosis, which of the following represent the correct sequence of events?

a) Macrophages form → secreted chemicals promote an inflammatory process → LDLs migrate to artery wall
b) Secreted chemicals promote an inflammatory process → macrophages form → LDLs migrate to artery wall
c) Macrophages form → LDLs migrate to artery wall → secreted chemicals promote an inflammatory process
d) LDLs migrate to artery wall → macrophages form → secreted chemicals promote an inflammatory process

C
46) Excess body fat is associated with an increased risk of:

a) cardiovascular disease
b) diabetes
c) high blood pressire
d) All of these

D
47) Research indicates that the initiation of atherosclerosis may be related to all of the following except:

a) elevated blood levels of glucose
b) infection
c) low blood pressure
d) smoking

C
48) Gary had the following blood levels (mg/100 mL): cholesterol 245, HDL 35, LDL 99. Which of these blood lipid levels put him at risk for heart disease?

a) Cholesterol and HDL
b) Cholesterol and HDL and LDL
c) Cholesterol and LDL
d) HDL and LDL

A
49) Kyle had a brother who exhibited heart disease at age 62 and a sister who exhibited heart disease at age 64. Based on the age at which his brother and his sister exhibited heart disease, is Kyle considered to have a family history of heart disease?

a) Yes, based on the age of his brother only
b) Yes, based on the age of his sister only
c) Yes, based on the ages of both his sister and brother
d) No, based on the ages of both his sister and brother

B
50) Intake of fish, nuts, and whole grains ________ heart disease risk.

a) may increase
b) may decrease
c) has no impact on
d) none of these are correct

B
51) A high-fat meal contains ____ calories in the same volume as compared to a low-fat meal.

a) the same amount of
b) fewer
c) more

C
52) The fat content of the U.S. diet is not thought to be the only reason for the incidence of increasing obesity in the United States. Which of the following best explains the increase in obesity?

a) Energy intake exceeds energy expended
b) Energy intake is less than energy expended
c) Energy intake equals energy expended
d) None of these are correct

A
53) To maintain a healthy body weight, Shaundra needs to eat 1850 calories per day. To be within the DRIs recommendations for total fat intake, which of the following amounts of total fat should be her upper limit?

a) 21 grams
b) 31 grams
c) 45 grams
d) 72 grams

C
54) The AMDR for fat children ages 1 to 3 is:

a) 20-35% of calories.
b) 25-35% of calories.
c) 30-40% of calories.
d) 35-45% of calories.

C
55) Based on the type of fat found in the following foods, which would be the healthiest choice for breakfast from the grains group?

a) Whole grain toast with honey
b) Poptart
c) English muffin with butter
d) French toast sticks with margarine

A
56) Which of the following types of oil is the best source of healthy, unsaturated fats?

a) Butter
b) Canola Oil
c) Lard
d) Stick margarine

B
57) All of the following foods contain cholesterol except:

a) boiled egg
b) hamburger cooked on the grill
c) avocado
d) salmon

C
58) Which of the following fats is lowest in saturated fat?

a) butter
b) coconut oil
c) olive oil
d) partially hydrogenated soybean oil

C
59) Based on the type of fat found in the following foods, which would be the healthiest choice for dinner from the vegetable group?

a) Tomatoes with olive oil and balsamic vinegar
b) Deep fried zucchini
c) Organic peas with butter
d) Mashed potatoes with cheddar cheese

A
61) The Nutrition Facts panel shows the amounts of all of the following except:

a) omega-3 fats
b) saturated fat
c) total fat
d) trans fat

A
62) Elise is trying to manage her blood cholesterol, so she wants to purchase some crackers that do not have saturated fat in them. Which oil, if it appears in the ingredient list should she avoid?

a) canola oil
b) coconut oil
c) olive oil
d) soybean oil

B
63) Only foods with visible fat, and not hidden fat, contribute to total caloric intake.
False
64) The following is a description of what Bryan ate yesterday. The sources of fat that he ate are mainly from visible sources of fat. Breakfast – poptart, glass of 2% milk Lunch – French fries, hamburger Snack – cheese and crackers Dinner – Baked potato with butter and sour cream, green beans, baked chicken drumsticks Snack – ice cream
False
65) Eating patterns in the United States have changed little over the past 40 years.
False
66) Even though the sources of fat in the U.S. diet have changed since 1970, the types of fat and the number of grams of fat Americans consume daily have changed little.
True
67) When comparing today’s fat consumption with that of 1971 the increase in women’s fat consumption is proportionally more substantial than men’s.
True
68) All omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids are unsaturated.
True
70) All cis and trans fatty acids are unsaturated.
True
71) Diets high in saturated fatty acids have been shown to increase the risk of heart disease.
True
72) The number and location of the double bonds determine the health effects they have on the body.
True
73) Rancidity is the spoilage of fats and oils.
true
74) Small amounts of trans fatty acids occur naturally in foods.
True
75) Hydrogenation makes a saturated fatty acid more unsaturated.
False
76) Arachidonic acid is an omega-3 fatty acid synthesized from linoleic acid.
False
77) Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) are omega-3 fatty acids found in fatty fish.
True
78) The bile in the micelles is also absorbed and returned to the gallbladder to be reused.
False
79) The amount of the fat-soluble vitamins absorbed can be reduced if dietary fat is really low.
true
80) The fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed through the same process as other lipids.
False
1) In general, plant proteins are used _____ efficiently as animal proteins to build proteins in the human body.

a) less
b) equally as
c) more

A
2) Animal foods provide a more concentrated source of protein in the diet as compared to plant foods.
True
3) A diet that is based on plant proteins alone cannot meet most people’s protein needs.
False
4) A diet that includes a variety of plant proteins can easily meet most people’s protein needs.
True
5) Animal products provide B vitamins and readily absorbable sources of minerals, such as iron, zinc, and calcium.
True
6) Which of the following is the best description of nutrients provided by animal protein sources: in fiber; in saturated fat and cholesterol; in readily absorbed forms of iron, zinc, and calcium?

a) High; high; high
b) Low; low; low
c) High; high; low
d) Low; high; high

D
7) In general, plant sources of protein provide _____absorbable forms of iron, zinc, and calcium as compared to animal protein sources.

a) less
b) equally
c) more

A
8) Plant foods generally are excellent sources of

a) fiber.
b) phytochemicals.
c) unsaturated fats.
d) all of these choices.

D
10. A _________bond joins amino acids together.
a) amino
b) peptide
c) lysine
d) hydrogen
B
11) If the diet is deficient in one or more of the _____amino acids, the body must break down existing proteins to provide the amino acids.

a) nonessential
b) essential
c) dispensable
d) dipeptide

B
12) There are certain conditions under which some of the nonessential amino acids cannot be synthesized to meet the body’s needs. When this occurs these amino acids are referred to as ____ amino acids.

a) essential
b) non essential
c) conditionally essential
d) equally essential

C
13) For some of the amino acids that our body needs, we must get them from dietary sources because the body cannot make them in sufficient quantities to meet our body’s needs.
True
14) The order and chemical properties of _____ in a polypeptide chain determine how the polypeptide fold, and thus the shape of the molecule formed.

a) amino acids
b) carboxylic acids
c) lipoproteins
d) water molecules

A
15) The three-dimensional shape of a protein is impacted by all of the following EXCEPT the

a) chemical properties of the amino acids.
b) folding of the polypeptide.
c) number of essential amino acids.
d) order of the amino acids.

C
16) When salivary amylase enters the stomach, the acid causes the structure of this enzyme to change so that it is no longer able to function. This change in structure is called

a) deamination.
b) deformation.
c) denaturation.
d) deactivation.

C
17) Foods are denatured by all of the following means EXCEPT by

a) chilling.
b) heat.
c) mechanical agitation.
d) the addition of acid.

A
18) The shape of a protein is essential to its function.
True
20) Most protein digestion occurs in the

a) mouth.
b) pancreas.
c) small intestine.
d) stomach.

D
21) _________ , an enzyme, is produced in the stomach and breaks some of the peptide bonds in polypeptide chains.

a) Amylase
b) Denaturase
c) Dipeptidase
d) Pepsin

D
22) The role of hydrochloric acid in protein digestion is to

a) break down polypeptide chains.
b) denature the protein.
c) slow peristalsis.
d) stimulate production of digestive enzyme in pancreas

B
23) The effective chemical digestion of protein in the stomach requires a/an ____ environment?

a) acidic
b) alkaline
c) basic
d) neutral

A
28) The process by which amino acids enter the body involves an energy-requiring amino acid transport system.
True
29) Which of the following scenarios is a possibility if an amino acid supplement overwhelms the amino acid transport system?

a) The amino acids from the supplement will use an alternate transport system.
b) The amino acids from the supplement will be eliminated from the body.
c) The amino acids from the supplement will compete with each other, increasing absorption of other amino acids.
d) The amino acids from the supplement will compete with each other, slowing absorption of other amino acids.

D
31) The ____ amino acid is the essential amino acid that is available in the lowest concentration relative to the body’s needs.

a) essentiality
b) framework
c) limiting
d) priority

C
32) If there is a shortage of an essential amino acid in the body, the absence of that amino acid limits protein synthesis.
true
33) During the synthesis of a protein, a shortage of one amino acid will not stop synthesis, but two or more missing amino acids will impact protein synthesis negatively.
False
34) Which of the following represents the correct sequence of steps that occur in protein synthesis?

a) translation → transcription → mRNA takes genetic code to ribosomes
b) mRNA takes genetic code to ribosomes → translation → transcription
c) transcription → mRNA takes genetic code to ribosomes → translation
d) mRNA takes genetic code to ribosomes → transcription → translation

C
35) Amino acids are used to make all of the following EXCEPT

a) creatine.
b) histamine.
c) melanin.
d) Vitamin D.

D
36) When your diet is high in iron, the gene that codes for the protein ferritin, which stores iron, is turned on. This scenario best describes which of the following processes?

a) energy production
b) gene expression
c) mineral synthesis
d) transamination

B
37) The amino acid pool is comprised of the

a) only molecules that have been broken down from body proteins
b) protein molecules only consumed in the diet
c) protein molecules only consumed in the diet and from the breakdown of body glycogen
d) protein molecules consumed in the diet and from the breakdown of body proteins

D
38) Transamination is the process by which transfer RNA reads the genetic code and delivers the needed amino acids to the ribosome.
False
41) Proteins have both structural and regulatory functions in the body.
True
42) When the diet does not provide enough energy to meet the body’s needs (e.g. consuming a very-low-calorie-weight-loss diet) body protein is used to provide energy.
True
43) Amino acids can be used by the body to make glucose and fatty acids.
True
44) The amino group is removed by the process of transamination and converted into the waste product urea.
False
45) Because our bodies do not store protein, functional body proteins, such as enzymes and muscle proteins, must be broken down to yield amino acids.
True
47) Marasmus is a form of malnutrition that negatively impacts which of the following developing organs the worst?
A
48) Kwashiorkor is an overall energy deficiency whereas marasmus is a protein deficiency.
False
49) Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of kwashiorkor?

a) Decreases in intelligence and learning ability
b) Energy deficiency
c) Muscle wasting
d) Swollen belly

D
50) Why is protein-energy malnutrition more common in children than adults?

a) The child’s stomach cannot digest protein from the diet.
b) Adults eat protein sources from the diet that have a higher absorption rate.
c) Because children are growing, their protein needs per unit body weight are higher.
d) Children do not eat enough total calories so that protein must be used as an energy source.

C
51) Protein-energy malnutrition is only seen in children.
False
52) As validated by evidence-based research, the major health concern with high-protein diets is

a) dehydration.
b) kidney stone formation.
c) urinary calcium excretion.
d) a high intake of saturated fat and cholesterol.

D
53) High-protein diets do not increase water loss.
False
54) Epidemiological studies suggest that diets that are rich in animal protein and low in fluid contribute to the formation of kidney stones.
True
55) A food intolerance is an adverse reaction to a food that involves production of antibodies.
False
56) Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder that attacks the lining of the small intestine.
True
57) The food label must indicate whether the product contains any of the most common food allergens.
True
58) Which of the following is NOT a common food allergen?

a) Chicken
b) Eggs
c) Low-fat milk
d) Wheat germ

A
59) Someone whose nitrogen output is greater than their nitrogen intake is said to be in

a) nitrogen balance
b) positive nitrogen balance
c) negative nitrogen balance
d) There is insufficient information provided to determine the status.

C
60) You would expect that a child who is growing to be in _____ nitrogen balance.

a) negative
b) positive
c) neither negative nor positive (equilibrium)

B
61) Most of the nitrogen we lose is lost in/through our

a) feces.
b) skin.
c) sweat.
d) urine.

D
62) Protein requirements per unit of body weight are _______ for infants and children than for adults.
a) less
b) the same
c) greater
C
63) Enzyme supplements that function inside body tissues provide no benefits because the enzyme is broken down into amino acids during digestion.
True
64) Protein and amino acid supplements are rarely needed to increase protein needs.
True
65) Most Americans consume more than enough grams of protein daily.
True
66) Endurance and strength athletes have a greater protein daily recommendation than non-athletes; therefore, they must use amino acid supplements.
False
67) A diet that provides 10% of calories from protein will meet the RDA for protein, but this is a relatively low-protein diet compared with typical eating patterns in the U.S.
True
68) Protein _______ is a measure of how good the protein in food is at providing the essential amino acids the body needs.

a) adequacy
b) availability
c) definability
d) quality

D
69) Of the following, which is the highest quality plant protein source?

a) Black beans
b) Rice
c) Soy
d) Wheat germ

C
70) Plant proteins are referred to as incomplete dietary protein.
True
71) Protein quality is a measure of how good the protein in a food is at providing the non-essential amino acids the body needs to synthesize proteins.
False
72)The body will receive _______ total protein from a diet that contains protein from meat and dairy foods as compared to a diet that contains protein from wheat and rice, nuts, and pinto beans.

a) less
b) the same amount
c) more

A
74) A poorly planned vegan diet is likely to be deficient in all of the following EXCEPT

a) calcium.
b) phytochemicals.
c) vitamin D.
d) vitamin B12

B
75) Which of the following is the most likely responsible for the health-promoting effects (reduced incidence of obesity, high blood pressure, and some types of cancer) of vegetarian diets?

a) High intake of fiber
b) High intake of tofu
c) Low intake of sodium
d) The total dietary pattern

D
76) MyPlate and the Dietary Guidelines include recommendations regarding both animal and plant sources of protein to meet your need for protein and essential amino acids.
True
77) A ____ excludes all animal flesh except fish.

a) lacto vegetarian
b) lacto-ovo vegetarian
c) pescetarian
d) vegan

C
78) Children who followed a vegetarian lifestyle will be malnourished.
False
1) Which of the following MyPlate food group is the richest source of vitamin D?

a) Dairy
b) Fruits
c) Grains
d) Protein

A
2) All of the following MyPlate food groups are good sources of vitamin B12 except for the _____ group.

a) Dairy.
b) Fruits.
c) Protein.
d) All of these are good sources of vitamin B12.

B
3) All of the following MyPlate food groups are good sources of folate except for the _____ group.

a) Dairy
b) Fruits
c) Grains
d) Vegetables

A
4) Vegetable oils, such as peanut, cotton, and corn oils, are good sources of vitamin E.
True
5)The best food sources of vitamin K are found in the MyPlate Protein and Vegetables food groups.
True
6) Almost all foods contain some vitamins, and all the food groups contain foods that are good sources of a variety of vitamins.
True
7) Not all fortification is mandated by the government.
True
8) The amount of a particular vitamin in a food depends on all of the following EXCEPT

a) how much of the food is consumed.
b) how the food is cooked.
c) how the food is stored.
d) what is added to the food during processing.

A
9) Brian’s need for a vitamin is 100 milligrams each day. The bioavailability of this vitamin is 35%. This means that Brian needs to consume _____ milligrams each day for this vitamin to meet his needs.

a) 65
b) 100
c) 135
d) 170

C
10) For vitamins X and Y, the daily needs are 140 milligrams. The bioavailability of vitamin X is 45% and for vitamin Y is 20%. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Daily intake for vitamin X is higher than vitamin Y.
b) Daily intake for vitamin Y is higher than vitamin X.
c) Daily intake for vitamin X is the same as vitamin Y.
d) None of these statements are true.

B
11) If the diet is chronically low in fat-soluble vitamins, the bioavailability of which vitamins will be impacted most?

a) Folate and vitamin B12
b) Thiamin and riboflavin
c) Vitamins A and D
d) Vitamins C and E

C
12) Most of the water-soluble vitamins are bound to blood proteins for transport.
True
13) Vitamin A is incorporated into chylomicrons for transport from the intestine.
true
14) Which of the following statements is true regarding this organ?
a) It releases bile to aid in the absorption of fat-soluble nutrients.
b) Some niacin is absorbed here.
c) It secretes digestive enzymes that aid in the release of vitamins from the food.
d) The bacteria here synthesize small amounts of vitamin B12.
C
15) Which of the following statements is true regarding this structure?
a) Vitamin E would be incorporated into this micelle for transport to the brush border.
b) Niacin would be incorporated into this chylomicron for absorption into the blood capillary.
c) Vitamin A would be incorporated into this chylomicron for transport to the microvilli.
d) None of these statements are true regarding the highlighted structure.
A
17) Coenzymes bind to enzymes to promote their activity.
True
18) All the B vitamins are coenzymes.
True
19) Which of the following vitamins have a coenzyme form?

a) Niacin
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin K

A
20) Coenzymes are essential for the proper functioning of numerous hormones involved in metabolism.
False
21) Which of the following is/are antioxidants?

a) Vitamin C.
b) Vitamin E.
c) Selenium.
d) All of these nutrients serve as antioxidants.

D
22) An antioxidant is a substance that protects against oxidative damage.
True
23) Antioxidants act by enhancing the formation of free radicals.
False
24) Which of the following vitamins must be included on the food label?

a) Niacin and thiamin
b) Riboflavin and iron
c) Vitamins A and C
d) Vitamins A and D

C
25) Vitamins C and D are directly involved in converting the energy in carbohydrate and fat into ATP.
false
26) Because fat-soluble vitamins are not stored in the body to any great extent, deficiency symptoms are quick to appear.
False
27) Mary needs to increase her thiamin consumption. Which of the following contains the most thiamin?

a) ¼ c sunflower seeds
b) 3 oz pork chop
c) 3 oz rainbow trout
d) 1 c oatmeal

B
28) Clare reads on the food label that the pizza contains enriched flour. Which of the following nutrients are added back to the flour in the enrichment process?

a) calcium
b) folate
c) thiamin
d) Vitamin C

C
29) The active ______ coenzyme is needed to convert pyruvate into acetyl-CoA.
a) folate
b) niacin
c) riboflavin
d) thiamin
D
30) Which of the following statements regarding thiamin is true?

a) Alcoholics are particularly susceptible to thiamin deficiency because thiamin absorption is decreased due to the effect the alcohol has the GI tract.
b) Beriberi is quite common in the U.S.
c) Increasing thiamin intake increases the body’s ability to produce ATP.
d) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is a thiamin toxicity.

A
31) One of the best sources of riboflavin in the diet is milk.
True
32) An adequate consumption of riboflavin is crucial for the conversion of several other vitamins.
True
33) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of pellagra?

a) dementia
b) dermatitis
c) diabetes
d) diarrhea

C
34) Niacin is synthesized in the body from the amino acid

a) alanine.
b) leucine.
c) riboflavin.
d) tryptophan.

D
35) Which of the following are good sources of niacin?

a) chicken and trout
b) kiwi and apples
c) corn and oatmeal
d) orange juice and spinach

A
36) Niacin supplementation can be toxic.
True
37) Raw egg whites contain the protein avidin that binds biotin and prevents its absorption.
True
38) The wide distribution of pantothenic acid in foods makes deficiency rare in humans.
True
39) Pantothenic acid is needed for the breakdown of carbohydrates, proteins, and amino acids.
True
40) Vitamin ___ is important for amino acid synthesis and protein metabolism.

a) B2
b) B6
c) C
d) B12

B
41) Which of the following is not a function of vitamin B6?

a) Synthesis of hemoglobin
b) Synthesis of the myelin sheath
c) Synthesis of collagen
d) Transamination and deamination

C
42) Based on the content in this visual, identify each of the three labeled parts in A:B:C order.
a) cysteine: homocysteine: methionine
b) homocysteine: cysteine: methionine
c) methionine: homocysteine: cysteine
d) methionine: cysteine: homocysteine
C
43) High levels of homocysteine in the blood increases cardiovascular risk.
True
45) The best food sources for folate and for vitamin B12 are fresh fruits and vegetables.
False
46) Vitamin B12 deficiency is particularly problematic because

a) it causes irreversible brain damage.
b) it causes microcytic anemia.
c) it prevents folate from being converted to one of its active forms.
d) its UL is set too high.

C
47) Low maternal folate intake increases the risk of birth defects called neural tube defects.
True
48) Folate coenzymes are needed for the

a) synthesis of collagen.
b) synthesis of RNA.
c) metabolism of some vitamins.
d) synthesis of DNA and metabolism of some amino acids.

D
49) Folate deficiency can lead to macrocytic or megablastic anemia.
True
50) Which of the following populations is not at increased risk of folate deficiency?

a) The elderly
b) Non-smoking teenage males
c) Pregnant women
d) Alcoholics

B
51) Megaloblastic anemia is a reduction in the blood’s capacity to carry oxygen that is characterized by abnormally large immature and mature red blood cells.
True
52) The Intrinsic Factor is necessary for the absorption of which B vitamin?

a) Folate
b) Niacin
c) Riboflavin
d) Vitamin B12

D
54) Which of the following statements regarding vitamin B12 is false?

a) Vitamin B12 is synthesized by the microflora in the large intestine.
b) Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the duodenum section of the small intestine.
c) Vitamin B12 needs the Intrinsic Factor to be absorbed.
d) The body stores and reuses vitamin B12 more efficiently than it does most other water-soluble vitamins.

B
55) Which of the following MyPlate food groups is the richest in vitamin B12?

a) Fruits
b) Grains
c) Protein
d) Vegetables

C
56) When Vitamin C intake is below 10 mg per day, the symptoms of _______ begin to appear.

a) beriberi
b) pellagra
c) rickets
d) scurvy

D
57) A family member has been taking Vitamin C supplements, but is now wondering if he should continue to spend money on these supplements. What have you learned about Vitamin C that might help them with an evidence-based decision?

a) Excessive supplementation can cause dementia.
b) Vitamin C is known to prevent the common cold.
c) Excessive supplementation can interfere with drugs prescribed to prevent blood clotting.
d) Excessive supplementation can cause diarrhea and can interfere with drugs prescribed to slow blood clotting

D
58) The symptoms of vitamin C deficiency include gums that swell and bleed. Why does this occur?

a) The lack of vitamin C allows bacteria in the mouth to irritate the gums.
b) The lack of vitamin C decreases the pH of the mouth.
c) There is reduced collagen synthesis.
d) There is increased plaque formation around the gums.

C
59) Collagen is a __________. Vitamin C is necessary to form ___________ that hold adjacent collagen strands together and give the protein_________.

a) mineral, muscle, strength
b) protein, muscle, structure
c) protein, bonds, strength
d) vitamin, muscle, structure

C
61) Cells that are deficient in vitamin A become hard and dry because they produce _______, a protein.

a) retinal
b) opsin
c) keratin
d) xerophthin

C
62) The process whereby immature cells change in structure and function to become specialized is called

a) cell differentiation.
b) gene expression.
c) night blindness.
d) rhodopsin.

A
64) Preformed vitamin A includes beta-carotene.
False
65) Which of the following statements regarding vitamin A is FALSE?

a) Protein and zinc status are important for healthy vitamin A status.
b) Beta-carotene is the most potent vitamin A precursor.
c) Pepsin is necessary to release the vitamin A from protein-based sources.
d) Worldwide, vitamin A deficiency is rare.

D
66) This visual represents a toxicity of ______ leading the toxicity disease _______.
a) beta-carotene, hypercarotenemia
b) niacin, pellagra
c) vitamin A, xerophthalmia
d) vitamin D, rickets
A
68) Vitamin D deficiency disease in children is called

a) osteopenia.
b) osteoporosis.
c) osteomalacia.
d) rickets.

D
69) Active ________ is required to maintain normal blood calcium and phosphorus levels.

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin E
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D

D
70) Based on the visual, what effect does active vitamin D have at the small intestine level?
a) Active vitamin D increases the absorption of calcium and phosphorus.
b) Active vitamin D stimulates calcium retention.
c) Inactive vitamin D is activated.
d) Inactive vitamin D releases calcium and phosphorus into the blood.
A