Nutrition 2 test

In which form are most dietary lipids found
Triglycerides
Lipids that are solid at room temperature are known as
fats
Lipids that are liquid at room temperature are known as
oils
What is the chemical composition of fats
Fatty acids and glycerol
Which item is a chief source of short-chain and medium-chain fatty acids
Dairy
Lipids differ in their degree of saturation or unsaturation due to their number of
double bonds
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What is a common dietary saturated fatty acid
Stearic acid
Which compound is missing four or more hydrogen atoms
Polyunsaturated fatty acid
The easiest way to increase intake of oleic acid is to consume more
olive oil
What product has the highest percentage of its fat in saturated form?
Coconut oil
Which product has the highest percentage of its fat in polyunsaturated form
Corn oil
Which product provides abundant amounts of omega-3 fatty acids
Flaxseed oil
Which product is considered a major source of polyunsaturated fat
Corn oil
What is a conjugated linoleic acid
A fatty acid with the chemical make-up of linoleic acid but with a different configuration
Which statement describes a feature of trans-fatty acids
In the body, trans-fatty acids are metabolized more like saturated fats than like unsaturated fats
What type of compound is lecithin
Phospholipid
Which statement describes is a feature of choline?
It is a part of lecithin
About how much cholesterol is synthesized by the liver every day
800 to 1500 mg
Which food contains cholesterol
Roasted turkey
What is the major source of “good” cholesterol
Endogenous synthesis
Which of the following is a characteristic of cholesterol
It is a precursor for bile and vitamin D synthesis
What term may be used to describe a hydrophobic substance
Lipophilic
Which statement characterizes the lipase enzymes
Salivary gland lipase (lingual lipase) plays an active role in fat digestion in infants
In the digestion of fats, emulsifiers function as
detergents
What part of the gastrointestinal tract is the predominant site of dietary fat hydrolysis
Small intestine
Chylomicrons are synthesized within the
intestinal cells
How is soluble fiber in the diet thought to help lower blood cholesterol level
It enhances excretion of bile leading to increased cholesterol turnover.
Bile is known to assist in the absorption of
fat
Spherical complexes of emulsified fats are known as
micelles
Which example characterizes enterohepatic circulation?
Recycling of bile from the intestine to the liver
In comparison to a low-density lipoprotein, a high-density lipoprotein contains
less lipid
Which lipoprotein contains the highest percentage of cholesterol
Low-density lipoprotein
After a fat-containing meal is absorbed, about how many hours does it take the body to remove the chylomicrons from the blood
14
What tissue contains special receptors for removing low-density lipoproteins from the circulation
Liver
A high risk of heart attack correlates with high blood levels of
low-density lipoproteins
What are the substances resistin and adiponectin
An important function of fat in the body is to
protect vital organs against shock
Which lipid is an essential nutrient
Linoleic acid
Which acid is an omega-3 fat
Docosahexaenoic acid
What is the immediate precursor for the eicosanoids
Fatty acids
Aspirin works to reduce the symptoms of infection or pain by retarding the synthesis of
certain eicosanoids
What are the precursors for synthesis of the eicosanoids
Long-chain polyunsaturated fatty acids
What is the function of lipoprotein lipase
Hydrolyzes blood triglycerides for uptake into cells
What is the function of adipose cell hormone-sensitive lipase
Hydrolyzes triglycerides to provide fatty acids for other cells
Approximately what percentage of the body’s energy needs at rest is supplied by fat
60
How much energy does one gram of fat provide
9 kcal
The results of blood tests that reveal a person’s total cholesterol and triglycerides are called a
lipid profile
Which source of lipids should be substituted for saturated fats to help lower blood cholesterol levels?
Canola oi
Which statement best describes the nutritional value of eggs
Although it is high in cholesterol, the egg is low in saturated fat
Which statement is true of the relationship fat intake and health
Intake of saturated fat raises blood cholesterol more than intake of cholesterol
What is the approximate average daily trans-fatty acid intake in the United States
5 g
When consumed regularly, which fatty acid helps prevent the formation of blood clots
Eicosapentaenoic acid
Approximately how much saturated fat is in 8 ounces of whole milk
5 g
Approximately how much saturated fat is in a plain baked potato
0 g
A lacto-ovo vegetarian wishing to ensure a liberal intake of linolenic acid should consume
canola oil and walnuts
Which product is a good source of eicosapentaenoic acid?
Tuna
The oils found in walnuts, soybeans, flaxseed, and wheat germ represent a good source of preformed
linolenic acid
Which statement describes a recognized relationship between dietary fat and cancer?
Fat from milk does not increase risk for cancer
According to the Dietary Guidelines, what should be the maximum total fat intake as a percentage of energy intake
35
For most adults, what is the recommended minimum amount of fat that should be consumed, as a percentage of total energy intak
20
What is the recommended range of daily fat consumption for an individual on a 2000 calorie diet?
45 to 75 grams
Surveys show that U.S. adults’ average intake of fat as a percentage of total energy intake is
34%
The average daily cholesterol intake of U.S. women is abou
224 mg
Which statement is true of fat in the diet of athletes
A minimum of 20% fat energy in the diet is needed
Which statement describes the lipid content of livestock
Grass-fed animals contain more omega-3 fats in the meat than grain-fed animals
What dietary advice is appropriate for reducing fat intake
Limit intake of all fried foods because they contain abundant fat
Which statement describes a drawback of olestra consumption
It inhibits absorption of vitamin E
Of the total fat content of the most commonly eaten nuts in the United States, what is the approximate percentage of monounsaturated fat
59
A major feature of the Mediterranean diet is liberal intake of
olive oil
What is the primary factor that differentiates one amino acid from another
The side group
Which element is found in certain amino acids
Sulfur
Which term is used to classify amino acids in the diet
Essential
Which item is contained in an amino acid
An acid group
What is the simplest amino acid
Glycine
Which item is a nonessential amino acid in human nutrition
Proline
Which item is an essential amino acid
Leucine
What amino acid is classified as conditionally essential when dietary intake of phenylalanine is insufficient or the body cannot normally metabolize phenylalanine
Tyrosine
What type of reaction is required to bind two molecules of glycine together and release a molecule of water
Condensation
When two amino acids are chemically joined together, the resulting structure is called
dipeptide
Which of the following is a feature of hemoglobin
It is constructed of four polypeptide chains
An example of a protein with quaternary polypeptide structures is
hemoglobin
What is the process by which heat or acidity disrupts the normal shape of a protein chain
Denaturation
The application of heat or acid to a protein that causes its shape to change is known as
denaturation
In what organ is pepsin active
Stomach
What digestive enzyme would be most affected in people who are unable to produce hydrochloric acid
Pepsin
The function of a protease is to
hydrolyze proteins
The chief function of pepsin is to
cleave proteins into smaller polypeptides
What is the usual fate of orally ingested enzyme supplements
Digestion by gastrointestinal proteases
What best describes the structure of pepsin
Protein
The process whereby messenger RNA is made from a DNA template is
transcription
What is a ribosome
A structure upon which proteins are assembled
A common genetic variation which causes a change in the amino acid sequence in the structure of hemoglobin leads to the disease
sickle-cell anemia
What type of protein would the body make in order to heal a wound
Collagen
What is the relationship between body proteins and water
Proteins attract water
What function does a buffer perform
It helps maintain a constant pH
How do sodium and potassium travel into and out of cells
Transport proteins within the cell membrane pick up and release the minerals across the membrane
What is opsin
A light-sensitive protein
Which of the following describes the structure of an antibody
Huge protein molecule
Which substance is involved in the clotting of blood
Fibrin
Which of the following may be used to determine protein utilization
Nitrogen balance
When nitrogen taken into the body exceeds nitrogen losses, we say the person is in
positive nitrogen balance
What is the amino acid pool
A mix of essential and nonessential amino acids derived from protein breakdown and dietary protein intake
What is the usual state of nitrogen balance for healthy infants, children, and pregnant women?
Positive
What amino acid is used to synthesize the neurotransmitter serotonin and the vitamin niacin?
Tryptophan
What is meant by protein turnover?
The synthesis and degradation of body proteins
When amino acids are deaminated, the immediate products are ammonia and often a
keto acid
Protein sparing in the body is best achieved when a person ingests
adequate levels of carbohydrate and fat
Approximately how much urea (g) can be produced daily by the average adult
250 g
What is the most likely side effect of a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet?
Increased thirst
What is a consequence of excess protein intake
Increased production and excretion of urea
What is the process whereby an amino group is combined with a keto acid to form an amino acid
Transamination
In the metabolism of amino acids for energy, what is the fate of the amino group
Excreted as urea
What is the most likely reason for a person to have abnormally high blood ammonia levels?
Liver dysfunction
What is the most likely reason for having an abnormally high blood urea level
Kidney dysfunction
What is the percent digestibility of most plant proteins
70-90
What is the percent digestibility of most animal proteins
90-99
Which of the following food proteins has the best assortment of essential amino acids for the human body
Egg
Which animal-derived protein is classified as a poor-quality protein
Gelatin
If the diet is lacking an essential amino acid, what will be the likely course of action
Protein synthesis will be limited
What is a “limiting” amino acid in a protein
An essential amino acid present in insufficient quantity for body protein synthesis to take place
Which statement characterizes the protein nutrition in vegetarians
Most vegetarians eating a variety of foods need not balance essential amino acid intake at each meal
In general, the protein quality in grains would be most improved by the addition of a plant protein rich in
lysine
In general, the protein quality of legumes would be most improved by the addition of a plant protein rich in
methionine
Excessive amounts of homocysteine in the blood are thought to increase the risk for
heart disease
Which amino acid has been reported to lower blood pressure and reduce homocysteine levels?
Arginine
Which statement describe a relationship between protein/amino acids and heart disease?
Elevated blood homocysteine levels are associated with smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol
Which statement describes an association between protein intake and kidney function
Restricting protein intake may slow the progression of kidney disease
What is the actual ratio of calcium to protein intake (mg to g) for most U.S. women
13:1
What would be the primary principle of wise diet planning as related to protein nutrition?
Moderation
What is a feature of the protein RDA
The recommendations are generous
Which of the following is an assumption made in the formulation of the RDA for protein?
Dietary carbohydrate and fat intakes are adequate
Which of the following is a feature of whey protein
when
What amino acid has been linked to the development of the rare blood disorder eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome in people who took it as a supplement
Tryptophan
What amino acid supplement has been advertised in the popular media for treating herpes infections?
Lysine
The disease phenylketonuria is related chiefly to abnormal metabolism of
a specific amino acid
The study of how food interacts with genes is known as
nutritional genomics
Dietary restriction of phenylalanine combined with adequate tyrosine is the usual treatment for people born with the disorder
PKU
A variation in a single nucleotide of a DNA strand is called a
single nucleotide polymorphism
he area of study that examines how environmental factors influence gene expression without changing the DNA is known as
epigenetics
What proportion of the U.S. adult population is considered overweight or obese
69%
Which of the following is a characteristic of fat cell development
More and larger fat cells are found in obese people compared with healthy-weight persons
What is the rationale for the fat cell theory of obesity
Fat cell number increases most readily in late childhood and early puberty
Which of the following is known to promote fat storage in adipocytes
Lipoprotein lipase
The major function of lipoprotein lipase is to
remove triglycerides from blood for storage
The most likely explanation for why women readily store fat around the hips whereas men readily store fat around the abdomen is gender differences in
the activity of lipoprotein lipase
Which of the following is a feature of the lipoprotein lipase enzyme
Its activities in men and women are sex-related and explain the differences in major fat storage regions of the body
Obesity resulting from an increase in the number of fat cells is termed
hyperplastic obesity
Which of the following defines the body’s set point
Which of the following is a characteristic of the rate of dietary fat oxidation
It is lower in obese people
What is Prader-Willi syndrome
A genetic disorder resulting in obesity
Which of the following is a feature of weight gain and genetics
Adopted children tend to have body weights more like their biological parents than their adoptive parents
On which organ or tissue does leptin primarily act
Hypothalamus
What are the observed effects of sleep deprivation on leptin and ghrelin?
Leptin decreases while ghrelin increases
Which of the following describes a relationship between leptin and energy balance?
Blood levels of leptin usually correlate directly with body fat.
Why, in part, is weight loss more successful with exercise and also after bypass surgery?
Ghrelin levels are relatively low
What is the significance of the uncoupling proteins in adipose tissue
Increased loss of energy as heat
Kirima is a Native Eskimo who lives in one of the coldest regions in the world. What type of adipose tissue is most effective at helping her to maintain warm body temperatures during the coldest parts of the year?
Brown
Which of the following is a characteristic of the body’s major types of adipose tissue
Very little brown fat is found in adults, whereas more is seen in infants
Which of the following is the best evidence that environment must play a role in obesity
The rate of obesity has been rising while the gene pool has remained relatively constant
Which of the following is a feature of taking diet histories to gauge energy intake
Both normal and obese people commonly misreport actual energy intakes
Compared with non-obese people, obese people have a lower
physical activity level
Which of the following is a feature of physical inactivity and energy balance
Differences in the time obese and lean people spend lying, sitting, standing, and moving account for about 350 kcalories per day
Tonya is an overweight cigarette smoker. Which of the following risk factors would make it especially important for her to lose weight
family history of heart disease
What percentage of people in the United States who use nonprescription weight-loss products have a normal weight
10
What is the principal reason that the FDA has banned the sale of products containing ephedrine?
The products were implicated in several cases of heart attacks and seizures
Clinically severe obesity is also known as
morbid obesity
Which of the following is a feature of prescription drug use for treatment of obesity?
The use of “off-label” drugs is common to take advantage of their modest weight loss effects
The prescription drug phentermine acts by regulating the utilization of
norepinephrine
Your patient, Mr. Sinclair, has a BMI of 43 and is taking drugs to lose weight. He has heard that some drugs cause lots of gastrointestinal discomfort and would prefer to take one that doesn’t give him any of these side effects. Which of the following should be prescribed for Mr. Sinclair?
Phentermine
What is the primary action of orlistat, a weight-loss drug
It inhibits pancreatic lipase
Which of the following is a feature of gastric surgery for the treatment of clinically severe obesity?
It diminishes the amount of food that can be eaten without GI distress.
Which of the following is a characteristic of liposuction
It results in a return of body fat within a year, primarily to the abdomen
What proportion of U.S. adults have maintained a 10% weight loss for at least a year
1 in 6
In a weight reduction regimen, the most realistic time frame for losing 10% of initial body weight is
6 months
What is a safe rate of weight loss on a long-term basis for most overweight people?
0.5-2 lbs/week
What minimum amount of body weight loss (lbs) is shown to improve physical capabilities and quality of life?
5-10
As a general rule, what minimum number of kcalories per day is necessary to ensure nutritional adequacy in an eating plan for reducing body weight in women
1200
As a general rule, what minimum number of kcalories per day is necessary to ensure nutritional adequacy in an eating plan for reducing body weight in men
1600
Which of the following is a characteristic of breakfast eating
People who eat breakfast frequently have a lower BMI than breakfast skippers
Which of the following would be most effective at lowering energy intake in a person on a weight reduction program
Select less energy-dense foods
Incorporating large quantities of low-energy-density foods in a diet is sometimes referred to as
volumetrics
Which of the following is a feature of meal eating
Faster eating correlates with higher body weight
What is the best approach to weight loss
Reduce daily energy intake and increase energy expenditure
An important aid in any weight-loss diet program is to
increase physical activity
Which of the following describes a connection between physical activity and energy expenditure?
The number of kcalories spent in an activity depends on body weight, intensity, and duration
Which of the following is a feature of the use of artificial sweeteners to control body weight?
They may lead to weight gain in some people.
Which of the following is a feature of the body’s response to engaging in physical activity?
After an intense and vigorous workout, metabolism remains elevated for several hours
A typical person who burns 200 kcalories during a 2-mile run would, in the postexercise period, burn an additional
30 kcalories
What is the principal reason that appetite is turned off immediately after a person finishes an intense workout?
Glucose and fatty acids are still abundant in the blood
What is the chief reason that health-care professionals advise people to engage only in low-to-moderate intensity activities for prolonged duration rather than more intense, shorter routines
Compliance is better
Which of the following is a relation of “spot reducing” to exercise
No exercise can target fat removal from any specific area of the body.
Individuals who are able to lose weight and successfully keep it off for at least a year typically
limit television to less than 10 hours per week
Approximately how many kcalories per week should be expended in physical activity in order to maintain a weight loss
2500
To help maximize the long-term success of a person’s weight-loss program, which of the following personal attitudes should be encouraged in the individual
Strongly believing that weight can be lost
An example of a behavior modification technique for weight control is to
keep a record of your eating habits.
Which of the following is a feature of smoking and weight maintenance
People who give up smoking gain an average of 10 lbs in the first year.
Which of the following is a feature of energy metabolism in formerly obese people who have lost weight
Energy requirements are lower than expected for their current body weight
How many calories does a 16 ounce cafe mocha have
400
What is the energy density of hard-boiled egg weighing 50 grams and delivering 78 kcalories
1.6
Because obesity apparently has many causes, even in a single individual, the best approach seems to be
prevention.
Approximately what percentage of U.S. adults are classified as underweight
2
The classification of underweight is achieved when the BMI first drops below
18.5.
Among the following, which is the most important strategy for an underweight person who wishes to achieve a healthy body weight
A high-kcalorie diet plus regular exercise
Of the following, which is among the recommended strategies for weight gain in an underweight person
Behavior modification training
What is the best meal-planning strategies for underweight people who desire to gain weight?
Eat meaty appetizers rather than salads
Which of the following would be part of a successful program of weight gain in an underweight individual
Eat energy-dense foods
Fad diets often produce weight loss, at least initially, because they
are designed to limit energy intake to around 1200 kcal/day
Which of the following is a characteristic of most fad diets
They limit food choices, thereby reducing energy intake
Jody is taking a nutrition class, and has been assigned to evaluate a popular diet plan. She finds a description of a plan for her assignment in a magazine at the grocery store. Which of the following statements in the magazine would suggest that this plan is an unsound, fad diet
“Once you complete this 6-month plan, you’ll never have to diet again