Fungi that can have a nonmould (e.g. yeast) and a mould phase
Organism capable of living on decaying organic material
long, branching filaments that come together to form mycelium
hyphae with cellular separation and cross-walls.
Sparsely septate hyphae
AKA aseptate hyphae. Contain few separations
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Chains of cells formed by budding that resembles true hyphae.
The portion of hyphae that extend below the agar. Function as nutrient absorption.
The portion of hyphae that extend above the agar. Function as support for reproductive structures – conidia.
Asexual reproductive structures. Important for ID and morphological development.
Single-celled, small conidia
Multi-cellular, large conidia
Conidia that result from fragmentation of hyphae into individual cells.
Fungi that undergo sexual reproduction
Fungi that only indergos only asexual reproduction. The only fungal groups that produce conidia.
General purpose agar. Nutriet poor and selective for fungi.
Brain Heart Infused agar. Nonselective for fungi. Contains dextrose, peptone, BHI. Make selective for dimorphs with the addition of cyclohexamide, chloramphenicol, gentamicin.
Inhibitory Mold Agar (IMA)
Selective agar for most fungal pathogens.
Dermatophyte Test Agar (DTA)
Used to isolate dermatophytes. Contains cyclohexamide, gent, and phenol red as pH indicator.
Mold/Yeast differential agars (4)
(1) potato dextrose agar (2) Bird seed and caffeine acid agars (3) cornmeal agar w/tween 80 (4) Rice, casein, and other nutrients.
Used to enhance conidia devt. pigment devt of T rubrum.
Selective and differential for C. neoformans. Brown to black colonies.
Cornmeal agar with Tween 80
Differentiate Candida spp.
Rice, casein agar
Differentiate Trichophyton spp.
Lactophenol cotton blue
ised to stain and preserve fungal elements.
Potassium hydroxide (KOH)
Used to dissolve nonfungal elements
Reveal capsule surrounding C. neofomanans in CSF
Calcofluor white stain
A fluorochrome that stains chitin found in the cell wall of fungi. Viewed under UV light. Fungi appear white to blue.
Clinically significant yeasts (5)
(1) Candida albicans (2) Cryptococcus neoformans (3) Trichosporon (4) Rhodotorula (5) Geotrichum candidum
Opportunistic fungi (3)
(1) Aspergillus spp. (2) Zygomycetes (3) Fusarium
Blood (systemic) fungal pathogens (4)
(1) Candida spp (2) Blastomyces dermatitis (3) Histoplasma capsulatum (4) Cryptococcus neoformans
CSF fungal specimens (4)
(1) Cryptococcus neoformans (2) Candida (3) Histoplasma capsulatum (4) Coccidioides immitis
Hair fungal pathogens (2)
(1) Microsporum (2) Trichophyton
Nail fungal pathogens (3)
(1) Aspergillus (2) Epidermophyton (3) Trichophyton
Skin fungal pathogens (5)
(1) Candida – onychomycosis, paronychomycosis (2) Microsporum (3) Trichophyton (4) Epidermophyton (5) Blastomyces dermatitidis
Lung fungal pathogens (7)
(1) Candida albicans (2) Aspergillus (3) Rhizopus (4) Penicillum (5) Histoplasma capsulatum (6) Blastomyces dermatitidis (7) Coccidioides immitis
Throat fungal pathogens (2)
(1) C. albicans – thrush (2) Geotrichum candidum
Urine fungal pathogens (2)
(1) C. albicans – vulvovaginitis (2) C. glabrata
Genital tract pathogens (1)
C. albicans – vulvovaginitis
Urease Test and fungal specimens (2)
(1) Cryptococcus spp and positive (2) C. albicans in neg control
Candida albicans (5)
(1) Grows on fungal media, SBA, CHOC, EMB (2) Tween 80 = chlamydiospores (3) Urease neg (except C. krusei) (4) Unositol neg (5) color dif on CHROMagar
Cryptococcus neoformans (6)
(1) bat/pigeon droppings, contaminated veges/milk (2) Direct stain shows capsules in tissue with eosin/hematoxylin (3) Black/brown cultures on bird seed agar (4) positive urease (5) pos phenol oxidase (6) nitrate neg
Two Circular Fungi (2)
(1) C. neoformans (2) Cocci immitis
(1) White piedra on hair (2) urease pos (3) assimilate carbohydrate
(1) moist environment (2) soil, dairy products (3) resemble Crypto but inositol neg
Aspergillus spp (2)
(1) fluffy growth at 2 days SABHI (2) conidiophores arise from foot cells to support a single vesicle
Aspergillus fumigatus (3)
(1) Most common cause of aspergillis (2) causes otomycosis (3) Conidiophores arise from foot cell. which support a single vesicle at their tip.
Aspergillus niger (1)
(1) On SABHI – grows black with a yellow reverse.
(1) Absidia (2) Mucor (3) Rhizomucor (4) Rhizopus (5) Syncephalastrum (6) Generally opportunistic
(1) Opportunistic mycetomas, keratitis, systemic infections (2) White, cottony colonies
(1) skin and superficial tissue infections (2) superficial mycoses = epithelial, nail infections (3) Cutaneous mycoses = deeper layers of skin infections
Fungi that only live on organic matter
(1) keratinophilic (2) Trichophyton (3) Epidermophyton (3) Microsporum
infect hair, nails, skin
infect skin and, nails
infect hair and skin
Tinea Pedis (3)
(1) athletes foot (2) Trichophyton, epidermophyton
Tinea corpus (3)
(1) ringworm – circular patches of skin (2) Microsporum, trichophyton
Tinea unguium (3)
(1) onychomycosis – nail destruction (2) epidermophyton, trichophyton
Tinea capitis (3)
(1) scalp infection (2) microsporum, trichophyton
Tinea barbae (3)
(1) beard infection (2) microsporum, trichophyton
Tinea cruris (3)
(1) jock itch (2) trichophyton, epidermophyton
ID of dermatophytes (3)
(1) colony morph (2) microscopic appearance (3) hair perforation test
Trichophyton characteristics (4)
(1) 7-10 days on SABHI (2) buff, granular and white colonies (3) many microconidia and few macroconidia – 3-7 cells (4) T. rubrum, T. mentagrophytes, T. verrucosum
Epidermophyton characteristics (4)
(1) 10 days on SABHI (2) yellow colonies with tan reverse (3) multiple macroconidia only (4) can have chlamydiospores and racquet hyphae
(1) very slow growers (2) tan colonies with salmon reverse (3) microconidia and macroconidia – 4-15 cells (4) M. audouinii (arthro), M. canis (zoo), M. gypseum (geo)
Superficial mycoses (4)
(1) Tinea versicolor (2) Tinea nigra (3) Black pieda (4) White piedra
Cutaneous and superficial fungal infection
Caused by dermatophytes
Subcutaneous fungal infection
Caused by dematiaceous fungi
Subcutaneous infections associated with dematiaceous fungi (4)
(1) mycetoma (2) chromoblastomycosis (3) phaeophomycosis (4) sporotrichosis
Blastomyces dermatitides (4)
(1) Respiratory, systemic (2) Spore inhalation (3) Ohio/Mississippi river valley (4) Dimorph
Coccidioides immitis (5)
(1) Respiratory, systemic (2) Spore inhalation (3) Valley fever – central valley (4) arthroconidia (5) moist/white turn fluffy after a week
Histoplasma capsulatum (5)
(1) Respiratory, systemic (2) Spore inhalation, bat guano, bird droppings (3) Southern US, Midwest, Appalacia (4) Dimorph (5) macro/microconidia
Paracoccidioides brasiliensis (4)
(1) Respiratory, systemic (2) Spore inhalation, ingestion (3) South America (40) dimorph
Penicillum marneffei (2)
(1) Dimorph (2) Only penicillin that is true path
Pneumocystis jirovecii (3)
(1) LRT (2) immunocompromised (3) Cysts stain with methanamine silver, giemsa, calcofluro, acid-Schiff
A 38 yr old male from Ohio presents with chest infiltrates and has been cleaning up bird s*it. What could it be? (a) A. fumigatus (b) C. immitis (c) C. albicans (d) H. capsulatum
D – Ohio river valley fever
A man has been living in the San Joaquin Vally and presents with a fungal nodule. It is most likely: (a) A. fumigatus (b) B. dermititidis (c) C. immitis (d) H. capsulatum
C – central valley fever
After being pricked by a thorn, a patient developed subcutaneous fungal infection a necrotic ulcer. Dimorphic – yeast at 35 deg, mould at RT with delicate hyphae ad conidia. What disease? (a) blastomycosis (b) chromomycosis (c) mycetoma (d) sporotrichosis
D – Sporothrix schenckii is causative agent after deep implantation.
A yeastlike fungi was isolated from sputum. No hyphae seen on Tween 80, nitrate neg, inositol pos, urease at 37 deg. These are consistent with: (a) C. krusei (b) C. terreus (c) C. neoformans (d) T. bergelii
C – all are urease pos, A and D produce hyphae, B is nitrate pos and does not grow at 35 deg
Which of the following types of Candida albicans infection commonly acquired from an exogenous source? (a) Diaper rash (b) Neonatal thrush (c) perianal infection (d) UTI
B -oral Candidiasis generally acquired by mother with vaginal Candida.
In a direct exam of a KOH wet mount of a nail specimen, Epidermophyton floccosum could be detected as: (a) Arthrocondia (b) Blastoconidia (c) Macroconidia (d) Microconidia
A – Could be E. floccosum of Trichophyton. But A. floccosum produces arthroconidia
The mold phase of the systemic fungus Blastomyces dermatitis can be confused with: (a) Scedosporium apiospermum (b) Sporothrix schenckii (c) Aspergillus spp (d) Penicillium notatum
A fungal culture with hyaline, septate hyphae, and a young conidiophore with a foot cell, and a swollen vescicle and good clues to ID: (a) Acremonium (b) Aspergillus (c) Paecilomyces (d) Penicillium
B – conidiophore arising from a foot cell and terminating in a vescicle are good clues for aspergillus.
In clinical specimens, Zygomycetes are: (a) common, normal human microflora (b) contaminants only (c) Can have a dimorph tissue phase (d) Can cause a rapidly fatal infection
D – generally contanimants, but acan be fatal very quickly
T. rubrum and T. mentagrophytes may be differentiated by the: (a) colony morphology (b) Endothrix hair infection produced by T. rubrum (c) Flourescence of hair infected with T. rubrum (D) In vitro hair penetration by T. mentagrophytes
D – If Trichophyton is suspected, a hair perferation test should be requested.
Broad, coenocytic (nonseptate) hyphae found in tissue would be most typical of an infection with: (a) aspergillus (b) blastomyces (c) microsporum (d) rhizopus
D – all others have septate hyphae.
Fungus infecting the skin and nails typically produces in culture: (a) Spindle-shaped, hyaline, echinulate, macroconidia and microconidia (b) Cylindrical or club-shaped, smooth, thin-walled macroconida and microconidia (c) clusters of microconidia (d) large, thin-walled, club-shaped macroconidia w/o microconidia
D – skin and nails are effected by epidermophyton which do not produce microconidia
C. albicans is rapidl ID’d by: (a) failure to assimilate sucrose (b) “feathering” on EMB (c) chlamydiospores (d) germ tubes
D – chlamydiospores take 24-48 hours at RT
Which of the following stains greatly enhances the visibility of fungi to cell walls and causes fluorescence: (a) Rhodamine-auramine (b) Warthin-Starry (c) Calcofluor (d) Periodic acid-Schiff
C – binds chitin in cell wall
This fungi is dimorphic, has a tissue phase, mother cells with 12 narrow-necked buds, mycelium, chlamydiospores, and coiled hyphae: (a) Blastomyces dermititidis (b) Coccidiodes immitis (c) Histoplasma capsulatum (d) Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis
The formation of arthroconidia is not important in which fungi? (a) Coccidiodes (b) Geotrichum (c) Trichosporon (d) Sporothrix
A black pigment produced by colonies growing on bird seed agar is due to: (a) urease (b) phenol oxidase (c) sucrose assimilation (d) arthroconidia production
B – PO breaks down niger seeds to melanin. C neoformans.
Which is not opportunistic? (a) Absidia (b) Aspergillus (c) Coccidioides (d) Fusarium
C – cocci is a true pathogen
Which of the following contains species found as a dematiaceous contaminant? (a) alternaria (b) aspergillus (c) fusarium (d) penicillium
A – Dark hyphae and black bottom of plate
Which of the following is found as a common saprobe and as an agent of keratitis? (a) Exophiala (b) Phialophora (c) fusarium (d) wamggiella
C – ID’d by cornea scraping
The microscopic ID of Pneumocystis jirovecii is based in the detection of: (a) Arthroconidia in subcutaneous tissue (b) cysts and trophs in respiratory specimens (c) yeast in respiratory system (d) tuberulate macroconidia in ling tissue
B – silver or giemsa stain
Fungi that undergo asexual reproduction are termed: (a) imperfect (b) perfect (c) aseptate (d) septate
Hyaline septate hyphae, conidiophores, and multicellular banana-shaped conidia are characteristic of: (a) Fusarium (b) Curvularia (c) Acremonium (d) Trichophyton
A – microconidia also
What does not describe Rhodotorula rubra? (a) isolated from dairy, soil, water (b) most common cause of diaper rash (c) nosocomial pathogen (d) contaminant/commensal in urine, sputum, feces
C – C. albicans is diaper rash
What organism is likely to cause a light brown lesion on the upper back? (a) Candida albicans (b) Fusarium spp (c) Geotrichum candidum (d) Malassezia furfur
D – M. furfur is the major cause of tinea (pityriasis) versicolor. Tropical and subtropical regions.
Which is likely to be found in clinical specimens as normal microflora and as clinically significant isolates? (a) Aspergillus niger (b) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis (c) Penicillium marneffei (d) Candida albicans
D – endogenous opportunistic pathogen. A is a contaminant. B, C are not endogenous and cause systemic mycoses
A 4 year olds hair is falling out in patches and fluoresces when subjected to a Woods Lamp. The culture is white, cottony, growth at 25 deg on PDA. Microscopically there are rare microconidia, septate hyphae, terminal chlamydiospores, no macroconidia. Does not grow on rice grains. (a) Microsporidium audouinii (b) Microsporidium gypseum (c) Trichophyton mentagrophytes (d) Trichophyton rubrum
A – most commonly effects children. The only Microsporidium that does not grow on rice grains.
In tissue infected with Histoplasma capsulatum (a) the hyphae usually invade blood (b) encapsulated yeast are typical (c) tuberculate macroconidia are typical (d) The fungus is intracellular
D – found inside WBC’s. Halo may be mistaken for a capsule
Blastomycosis is likely found in which environment? (a) Lower Sonoran life zone (b) Mississipi and Ohio River valleys (c) Pigeon roosts (d) bat roosts
B – although rarely found in the environment
Coccidiomycosis is likely found in which environment? (a) Lower Sonoran life zone (b) Mississipi and Ohio River valleys (c) Pigeon roosts (d) bat roosts
A – dry, winters cold above freezing
Cryptococcus is likely found in which environment? (a) Lower Sonoran life zone (b) Mississipi and Ohio River valleys (c) Pigeon roosts (d) bat roosts
C – endemic to pigeon guts, not pathogenic to pigeons
Histoplasmosis is likely to be caused by contact with which environment? (a) Sphagnum moss (b) Starling roosts (c) Stagnent fresh water (d) colorado river valley
B – common in the Mississippi and Ohio River valleys
Sporotrichosis is likely to be caused by contact with which environment? (a) Sphagnum moss (b) Starling roosts (c) Stagnent fresh water (d) colorado river valley
A – caused by traumatic implantation
White piedra is caused by: (a) Hortaea werneckii (b) Trichosporon spp (c) Piedraia hortea (d) Fonsecaea compacta
B – white nodules in the hair shaft
Black piedra is caused by: (a) Hortaea werneckii (b) Trichosporon spp (c) Piedraia hortea (d) Fonsecaea compacta
C – black nodules on hair shaft
Tinea nigra is caused by: (a) Hortaea werneckii (b) Trichosporon spp (c) Piedraia hortea (d) Fonsecaea compacta
A – black/brown nodules on hands and forearms. Dematiaceous, septate hyphae.
The cause of tinea versicolor is (a) Aspergillus niger (b) Malassesia fufur (c) Microsporum gypseum (d) Geotrichum candida
B – chronic, mild, superficial skin infection
A keratinophilic saprophyte is (a) Aspergillus niger (b) Malassesia fufur (c) Microsporum gypseum (d) Geotrichum candida
C – dermatophyte
The cause of otomycosis is (a) Aspergillus niger (b) Malassesia fufur (c) Microsporum gypseum (d) Geotrichum candida
A – 90% of ear infectoions
On cornmeal agar with tween 80, the following displays true hyphae and arthroconidia only (a) Candida albicans (b) Geotrichum (c) Trichosporon (d) Aspergillus fumigatus
B – geotrichum displays arthroconidia only
On cornmeal agar with tween 80, the following displays true hyphae, arthroconidia, and blastoconidia (a) Candida albicans (b) Geotrichum (c) Trichosporon (d) Aspergillus fumigatus
C – differentiate via blastoconidia (rare)
On cornmeal agar with tween 80, the following displays pseudohyphae, blastoconidia, and chlamydospores (a) Candida albicans (b) Geotrichum (c) Trichosporon (d) Aspergillus fumigatus
On cornmeal agar with Tween 80, the following displays pseudohyphae and blastospores: (a) Mucor spp (b) Candida tropicalis (c) Cryptococcus neoformans (d) Candida albicans
B – long braching pseudohyphae. blue on CHROMagar
On cornmeal agar with Tween 80, the following displays blastospores only w/o hyphae or pseudohyphae: (a) Mucor spp (b) Candida tropicalis (c) Cryptococcus neoformans (d) Candida albicans
C – also urease pos, nitrate neg, brown pigment on birdseed agar.
Cryptococcus neoformans is most commonly isolated from: (a) Bone Marrow (b) CSF (c) chronic draining os sinus tract of foot (d) chronic interdigital lesion of foot
Histoplasmosis capsulatum is most commonly isolated from: (a) Bone Marrow (b) CSF (c) chronic draining os sinus tract of foot (d) chronic interdigital lesion of foot
Pseudallescheria boydii is most commonly isolated from: (a) Bone Marrow (b) CSF (c) chronic draining os sinus tract of foot (d) chronic interdigital lesion of foot
C – eumycotic mycetoma
Trichophyton mentagrophytes is most commonly isolated from: (a) Bone Marrow (b) CSF (c) chronic draining os sinus tract of foot (d) chronic interdigital lesion of foot
D – intertiginous tinea pedis. Usually between toes