First Assistant Study Guide

Lymph channels run parallel to which structures?
A. Nerves
B. Veins
C. Arteries
D. Ligaments
B. Veins
Body temperature is regulated by the:
A. Pons
B. Cerebellum
C. Midbrain
D. Hypothalamus
D. Hypothalamus
Which two electrolytes are essential for normal cardiac contractions?
A. Phosphate and chloride
B. Magnesium and sodium
C. Bicarbonate and sulfate
D. Potassium and calcium
D. Potassium and calcium
Water constitutes what average normal percentage of total body weight?
A. 20% to 40%
B. 50% to 70%
C. 70% to 85%
D. 15% to 25%
B. 50% to 70%
The thyroid gland consists of right and left lobes joined by the:
A. Larynx
B. Isthmus
C. Parathyroid gland
D. Cricoid cartilage
B. Isthmus
Langer lines generally lie perpendicular to the direction of:
A. Skin folds
B. Underlying muscle tension
C. A midline incision
D. Movement of the bone joints
B. Underlying muscle tension
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The arterial supply to the intestinal tract, with the exception of the stomach, duodenum, and distal rectum, is derived from the:
A. Superior and inferior mesenteric arteries
B. Cystic artery
C. Gastroduodenal artery
D. Hepatic artery
A. Superior and inferior mesenteric arteries
Excessive secretion of growth hormones in adults causes:
A. Splenomegaly
B. Acromegaly
C. Cardiomegaly
D. Hepatomegaly
B. Acromegaly
The inner lining of the mucosa of the gastrointestinal tract is composed of:
A. Smooth muscle
B. Areolar connective tissue
C. Epithelium
D. Elastic connective tissue
C. Epithelium
The large artery that arises from the left side of the aortic arch and descends into the arm is the:
A. Subclavian
B. Carotid
C. Brachiocephalic
D. Radial
A. Subclavian
An enzyme active in the digestive of starches is.
A. Amylase
B. Trypsin
C. Lipase
D. Lactase
A. Amylase
The normal pH of blood is:
A. 3.5-4.5
B. 7.3-7.4
C. 8.5-9.0
D. 9.5-10.5
B. 7.3-7.4
Which cells secrete pepsinogen?
A. Islands of Langerhans
B. Beta
C. Chief
D. Parietal
C. Chief
Which of the following veins drains the intracranial venous sinuses to veins on the outside of the skull?
A. Emissary
B. Middle cerebral
C. Cerebellar Veins
D. Radial Veins
A. Emissary
Which of the following arteries supplies blood to the brain?
A. Anterior and middle cerebral arteries
B. Vertebral and internal carotids
C. External and internal carotids
D. Occipital
B. Vertebral and internal carotids
Which of the following arteries divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries?
A. Internal carotid
B. External carotid
C. Vertebral
D. Basilar
A. Internal carotid
Which of the following arteries is a direct branch of the internal carotid?
A. Vertebral
B. Aorta
C. Middle cerebral
D. Facial
C. Middle cerebral
The lateral ventricles within the cerebral hemisphere communicate with the third ventricle through the opening called:
A. Foramen of Monro
B. Foramen Ovale
C. Foramen of Vesalius
D. Foramen Magnum
A. Foramen of Monro
The third ventricle of the brain empties into the fourth ventricle through the:
A. Aqueduct of Sylvius
B. Choroid plexuses
C. Foramen venosum
D. Foramen spinosum
A. Aqueduct of Sylvius
Spinal fluid is produced by the:
A. Choroid plexus
B. Lateral ventricle
C. Dura mater
D. Cerebrum
A. Choroid plexus
The fold of dura mater that separates the cerebral hemispheres:
A. Flax cerebri
B. Tentorium cerebelli
C. Central sulcus
D. Circular sulcus
A. Flax cerebri
Which of the following separates the frontal and the temporal lobes?
A. Fissure of Sylvius
B. Fissure of Rolando
C. Fissure of Bichat
D. Longitudinal Fissure
A. Fissure of Sylvius
The frontal lobe is bounded posteriorly by the central sulcus, also called the:
A. Fissure of Rolando
B. Fissure of Sylvius
C. Tentorium cerebelli
D. Transverse fissure
A. Fissure of Rolando
Which of the following areas located in frontal gyrus of the brain controls the function of speech?
A. Brodmann’s
B. Broca’s
C. Temporal
D. Cerebral cortex
B. Broca’s
The white line of Hilton is situated:
A. Between the superior hemorrhoidal artery and middle hemorrhoidal artery
B. In the area between the proximal two-thirds and distal third of the transverse colon
C. Between the external and internal anal sphincters D. Between the rectum and vagina
C. Between the external and internal anal sphincters
A chemical reaction that provides energy by the breakdown of food molecules is called:
A. Catabolism
B. Metabolism
C. Glycogenesis
D. Anabolism
A. Catabolism
Adipose tissue lies in which of the following skin layers?
A. Epidermal
B. Subcutaneous
C. Dermal
D. Reticular
B. Subcutaneous
Collagen is produced by which of the following connective tissue cells?
A. Leukocytes
B. Osteoclasts
C. Fibroblasts
D. Erythrocytes
C. Fibroblasts
What is normal cardiac output for an adult?
A. 4-8 L/minute
B. 8-12 L/minute
C. 12-16 L/minute
D. 16-20 L/minute
A. 4-8 L/minute
Which of the following veins drains the right side of the vertebral column?
A. Thoracic
B. Lumbar
C. Azygos
D. Posterior intercostal
C. Azygos
Which of the following arteries supplies the cecum, ascending colon, hepatic flexure, and proximal portion of the transverse colon?
A. Pancreaticoduodenal
B. Superior mesenteric
C. Abdominal aorta
D. Inferior mesenteric
B. Superior mesenteric
The celiac artery trifurcates into the:
A. Left gastric, splenic and hepatic arteries
B. Internal and external iliac and femoral arteries
C. Lumber, gastric, and splenic arteries
D. Renal, testicular, and suprarenal arteries
A. Left gastric, splenic and hepatic arteries
A Prolongation of the breast tissue located in the upper, outer part of the breast that passes through an opening in the axillary fascia is called the:
A. Axillary tail of Spence
B. Cooper’s ligament
C. Axillary fascia
D. Sebaceous gland
A. Axillary tail of Spence
The mammary gland is fixed by the overlying skin and the underlying pectoral fascia by fibrous bands known as:
A. Lobules
B. Acini
C. Suspensory ligaments of Cooper
D. Deep pectoral fascia
C. Suspensory ligaments of Cooper
The arterial blood supply to the breast is supplied from branches of the:
A. Internal mammary, axillary and lateral thoracic
B. Internal thoracic and subclavian
C. Brachiocephalic and pulmonary
D. Intercostal and phrenic
A. Internal mammary, axillary and lateral thoracic
Which of the following is the loose areolar tissue that separates the breast from the pectoralis major muscle?
A. Subcutaneous tissue
B. Retromammary space
C. Cooper’s ligament
D. Superficial fascia
B. Retromammary space
Which of the following lymph nodes is located between the pectoralis major and minor muscles?
A. Axillary
B. Inguinal
C. Rotter
D. Thoracic
C. Rotter
Which of the following nerves travels along the anterior-lateral chest all and innervates the serratus anterior muscle?
A. Axillary
B. Long thoracic
C. Thoracodorsal
D. Musculotaneous
B. Long thoracic nerve
Which of the following nerves innervates the latissimus dorsi muscle?
A. Subscapular
B. Thoracodorsal
C. Lateral pectoral
D. Intercostobrachial
B. Thoracodorsal
The nerve of Grassi is associated with the:
A. Stomach
B. Liver
C. Heart
D. Bladder
A. Stomach
The vein of Sappey drain the:
A. Spleen
B. Bladder
C. Diaphragm
D. Lumbar verterbrae
C. Diaphragm
The node of Lund is located in the:
A. Triangle of Calot
B. Inguinal canal
C. Patella Bursa
D. Carotid triangle of the neck
A. Triangle of Calot
Where is Hartmann’s pouch located?
A. Gallbladder infundibulum
B. Apex of the gallbladder
C. Stomach
D. Liver
A. Gallbladder infundibulum
The small ducts that drain bile directly into the gallbladder are called:
A. Hepatopancreatic
B. Luschka
C. Hepatic
D. Portal
C. Hepatic
Which of the following the the name for the small pancreatic duct?
A. Wirsung
B. Santorini
C. Accessory
D. Cystic
B. Santorini
The three structures that form the anatomical triangle of Calot:
A. Cystic artery, right hepatic duct, common bile duct
B. Cystic duct, common hepatic duct, lower edge of the liver
C. Cystic duct, common hepatic duct, abdominal aorta
D. Cystic artery, common bile duct, superior edge of duodenum
B. Cystic duct, common hepatic duct, lower edge of the liver
The point of separation between the posterior rectus sheath superiorly and absence of the sheath inferiorly is called the:
A. Arcuate line
B. Linea alba
C. Semilunaris
D. Aspera
A. Arcuate line
At what point does the external illiac artery become the femoral artery?
A. Within the inguinal canal
B. At the location of the inguinal canal
C. At the location of the ilioinguinal nerve
D. Within the triangle of doom
B. At the location of the inguinal canal
The avascular area located in the mesentery and to the left of the middle colic artery is:
A. The space of Riolan
B. Sudeck’s point
C. Jackson’s veils
D. Alcock’s canal
A. The space of Riolan
The series of arcades along the mesenteric border throughout the length of the colon is called the:
A. Arc of Riolan
B. Marginal artery of Drummond
C. Pancreaticoduodenal arch
D. Paracolic arcade
B. Marginal artery of Drummond
Valve’s of the gallbladder are called:
A. Calot’s
B. Heister
C. Hepatic
D. Interlobular
B. Heister
Which of the following nerves is located lateral to the long thoracic nerve and innervates the latissimus dorsi muscle?
A. Thoracodorsal
B. Long thoracic
C. Lateral pectoral
D. Subscapular
A. Thoracodorsal
Which ligament connects the thyroid to the trachea?
A. Berry
B. Recurrent
C. Lateral
D. Posterior
A. Berry
The structure that binds the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall is the:
A. Mesentery
B. Greater omentum
C. Falciform ligament
D. Lesser omentum
A. Mesentery
The left gastric, right gastric, right gastroepiploic, left gastroepiploic, and short gastric arteries supply the:
A. Spleen
B. Stomach
C. Duodenum
D. Kidney
B. Stomach
The two muscles that form the pelvic diaphragm are:
A. Levator ani and coccygeus
B. Pubococcygeus and iliococcygeus
C. Psoas and piriformis
D. Puborectalis and obturator internus
A. Levator ani and coccygeus
Which of the following statements describes a nonrecurrent laryngeal nerve?
A. Variant laryngeal nerve that branches from the vagus and travels directly into the larynx
B. Variant laryngeal nerve that branches off the superior laryngeal nerve and innervates the thyrohyoid membrane
C. Variant laryngeal nerve that branches off the right recurrent laryngeal nerve and innervates the cricothyroidmuscle
D. Variant laryngeal nerve that branches off the spinal branch of the accessory nerve and innervates the larynx
A. Variant laryngeal nerve that branches from the vagus and travels directly into the larynx

( Nonrecurrent laryngeal nerve is a variant nerve that branches off the vagus and travels directly into the larynx at the level of the inferior horn of the thyroid cartilage)

Jackson’s membrane would be found near the:
A. Cecum
B. Ascending colon
C. Descending colon
D. Rectum
A. Cecum
The flexure between the transverse colon and the descending colon is called the:
A. Hepatic
B. Splenic
C. Gastric
D. Colic
B. Splenic
The anastomosis, or linking, of arcades between the superior and inferior mesenteric vessels is known as the long anastomosis of:
A. Roe
B. Riolan
C. Douglas
D. Retzius
B. Riolan
Which nerve innervates the diaphragm?
A. Phrenic
B. Thoracic
C. Median
D. Thoracodorsal
A. Phrenic
The rectus sheaths that meet to form a tough fibrous white band that extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis is the:
A. Linea alba
B. Serratus anterior
C. External oblique
D. Rectus abdominis
A. Linea alba
Which organ is completely retroperitoneal?
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Colon
D. Duodenum
B. Kidney
The liver is divided into two principal lobes by which of the following ligaments?
A. Cruciate
B. Round
C. Falciform
D. Coronary
C. Falciform
The sphincter located at the distal end of the common bile duct that opens into the duodenum is the:
A. Oddi
B. Vater
C. Wirsung
D. Pyloric
A. Oddi
The cartilage distal to the thyroid cartilage and the proximal to the thyroid gland is the:
A. Articular
B. Cricoid
C. Tracheal
D. Hyoid
B. Cricoid
Which vein is shared by the pancreas and liver?
A. Superior vena cava
B. Subclavian
C. Portal
D. Renal
C. Portal
The head of the pancreas is surrounded by the:
A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Pyloris
A. Duodenum
Which of the following arteries supply blood to the thyroid gland?
A. External carotid
B. Internal carotid
C. Axillary
D. Vertebral
A. External carotid
What structures are located in the anterior mediastinum?
A. Thymus, ascending aorta, lymph nodes
B. Upper trachea, esophagus,
C. Phrenic nerves, lower trachea and bifurcation
D. Descending aorta, thoracic duct, vagus nerve, azygous vein
A. Thymus, ascending aorta, lymph nodes
The anatomical division between the inguinal and femoral regions is the :
A. Femoral artery
B. Cooper’s ligament
C. Internal spermatic vessels
D. Poupart’s ligament
D. Poupart’s ligament
Hesselbach’s triangle is bounded by the rectus abdominis muscle, inferior epigasric vessels and:
A. External oblique muscle
B. Falciform Ligament
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Linea Alba
C. Inguinal ligament
The inner lining of the mucosa within the gastrointestinal tract is composed of:
A. Smooth striated muscle
B. Areolar connective tissue
C. Simple columnar epithelium
D. Elastic connective tissue
C. Simple columnar epithelium
Another name for the folds on the inner wall of the stomach is:
A. Microvilli
B. Plicae
C. Rugae
D. Pyloris
C. Rugae
The area where the common bile duct joins the pancreatic duct and enters the duodenum is called the:
A. Ampulla of Vater
B. Duct or Santorini
C. Duct of Wirsung
D. Islets of Langerhans
A. Ampulla of Vater
The uterine artery is a branch of the anterior trunk of the:
A. Internal iliac artery
B. External iliac artey
C. Aorta
D. Femoral artery
A. Internal iliac artery
The ovary is suspended from the posterior lead of the broad ligament by the:
A. Mesovarium
B. Parietal peritoneum
C. Ovarian Ligament
D. Uterus
A. Mesovarium
The ovarian artery is a branch of the:
A. Pelvic artery
B. Cystic artery
C. Rectal artery
D. Abdominal aorta
D. Abdominal aorta
Which of the following ligaments travels in the upper part of the broad ligaments below and infront of the fallopian tubes, passing over the vesicle vessels and nerve?
A. Cardinal
B. Uterosacral
C. Round
D. Pubofemoral
C. Round
The uterine artery is a branch of the anterior trunk of the:
A. Internal iliac artery
B. External iliac artery
C. Aorta
D. Femoral Artery
A. Internal iliac artery
Which of the following ligaments encloses the round ligament and extends from the lateral surface of the uterus to the pelvic wall?
A. Broad
B. Suspensory
C. Ovarian
D. Infundibulopelvic
A. Broad
Which of the following is the nourishing coat of the eyeball that consists mainly of blood vessels?
A. Choroid
B. Iris
C. Ciliary body
D. Central artery
A. Choroid
The ophthalmic artery divides into the:
A. Supraorbital and supratrochlear
B. Internal and external carotid
C. Middle meningeal and dorsal nasal
D. Episcleral and posterior ciliary
A. Supraorbital and supratrochlear
Which rectus muscle moves the eyeball upward and medially?
A. Lateral
B. Median
C. Inferior
D. Superior
D. Superior
The recurrent laryngeal nerve that supplies the vocal cords lies very close to the:
A. Inferior thyroid artery
B. Brachial artery
C. External carotid
D. Subclavian artery
A. Inferior thyroid artery
The arterial blood supply to the nose is from branches of the internal and external:
A. Carotids
B. Maxillary
C. Ethmoid
D. Facial
B. Maxillary
The five branches of the facial nerve from superior to inferior after it enters the parotid gland is:
A. Buccal, cervical, mandibular, zygomatic, temporal
B. Temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, cervical
C. Cervical, temporal, mandibular, zygomatic, buccal
D. Mandibular, temporal, zygomatic, buccal, cervical
B. Temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, cervical
Where do the mental nerves and vessels exit from the mandible?
A. Foramen
B. Fontanel
C. Fossa
D. Fissure
A. Foramen
In addition to the zygoma, which other bone compromises the zygomatic arch?
A. Maxilla
B. Temporal
C. Mandible
D. Sphenoid
B. Temporal
Which of the following is a principal muscle of the pelvic floor?
A. Satorius
B. Levator ani
C. Internal oblique
D. Rectus abdominis
B. Levator ani
The junction of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins forms the:
A. Inferior vena cava
B. Femoral vein
C. Middle colic
D. Portal vein
D. Portal vein
The tibial and common peroneal nerves are terminal branches of which of the following nerves?
A. Femoral
B. Sciatic
C. Splenic
D. Peroneal
B. Sciatic
The arterial supply to the bladder is derived mainly from the:
A. Obturator
B. Internal pudendal
C. Internal iliac
D. Umbilical
C. Internal iliac
Which of the following structures of the kidney does urine drain into from the major calyces?
A. Nephron
B. Bladder
C. Renal Pelvis
D. Ureter
C. Renal Pelvis
A rounded protuberance found at a point of articulation with another bone is called a:
A. Crest
B. Trochlea
C. Tubercle
D. Condyle
D. Condyle
At which vertebral level is the odontoid process located?
A. C1
B. C2
C. C7
D. L5
B. C2
Which of the following cavities within the brain is filled with cerebrospinal fluid?
A. Aperture
B. Medulla
C. Pyramids
D. Ventricles
D. Ventricles
Which ligament is attached to the posterior lateral condyle of the femur and to the notch of the midline of the tibia between the tibial condyles?
A. Posterior cruciate
B. Patellar
C. Anterior cruciate
D. Lateral collateral
C. Anterior cruciate
The gelatinous substance within and intervertebral disc is called the:
A. Spinous process
B. Nucleus pulposus
C. Annulus fibrosus
D. Intervertebral foramen
B. Nucleus pulposus
Which vein proximally travels across the neck of the abdominal aorta?
A. Inferior mesenteric
B. Left common iliac
C. Splenic
D. Renal
D. Renal
The branches of the aortic arch are:
A. Brachiocephalic, left common carotid, left subclavian
B. Right and left common carotid
C. Brechiocephalic, right common carotid, right subclavian
D. Celiac trunk, superior and inferior mesenteric
A. Brachiocephalic, left common carotid, left subclavian
The trigeminal arterial branches of the aorta are the:
A. Renal and gonadal
B. Right and left common iliacs
C. Superior and inferior mesenteric
D. Inferior phrenic and lumbar
B. Right and left common iliacs
The coronary arteries originate at the base of the ascending aorta, also known as the:
A. Sinuses of Valsalva
B. Pulmonary sinuses
C. Coronary sinuses
D. Aortic sinus
A. Sinuses of Valsalva
Which of the following are branches of the left coronary artery?
A. Anterior interventricular and right marginal
B. Circumflex and anterior descending arteries
C. Posterior interventricular and diagonal
D. Sinoatrial nodal and atrioventricular nodal
B. Circumflex and anterior descending arteries
The thoracic duct begins in the:
A. Spinal column
B. Abdomen at the Cisterna Chyli
C. Base of the skull
D. Thorax inferior to the mediastinum
B. Abdomen at the Cisterna Chyli
Two-thirds of the breast tissue rests on the pectoralis major muscle and the other one-third rests on the:
A. Pectoralis minor
B. Teres minor
C. Serratus anterior
D. External oblique
C. Serratus anterior
The carotid body and the carotid sinus are two sensory structures; the carotid body is a:
A. Chemoreceptor
B. Neuroreceptor
C. Peptide receptor
D. Beta-adrenergic receptor
A. Chemoreceptor
The value that prevents the retrograde flow of blood into the atrium from the left ventricle is the:
A. Tricuspid
B. Pulmonary
C. Mitral
D. Aortic
C. Mitral
Deoxygenated blood is carried from the right ventricle to the lungs via which structure?
A. Pulmonary arteries
B. Pulmonary veins
C. Coronary artery
D. Vena cava
A. Pulmonary arteries
At the base of each internal carotid artery is an enlargement called the:
A. Bulb
B. Body
C. Sinus
D. Plexus
C. Sinus
The three protective tissue layers called the meninges lie in the following order, starting with the most superficial:
A. Arachnoid, dura mater, pia mater
B. Pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid
C. Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater
D. Arachnoid, pia mater, dura mater
C. Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater
Fissure of Sylvius separates the:
A. Frontal and temporal lobe
B. Parietal and occipital lobe
C. Occipital and temporal lobe
D. Temporal lobe and olfactory area
A. Frontal and temporal lobe
The great sensory nerve of the face and head is the:
A. Trochlear
B. Oculomotor
C. Hypoglossal
D. Trigeminal
D. Trigeminal
Which cranial nerve emerges from the medulla, passes through the skull, and descends through the neck region into the thorax and abdominal region?
A. IX
B. X
C. XI
D. XII
B. X
Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the superior oblique muscle?
A. Olfactory (I)
B. Optic (II)
C. Oculomotor (III)
D. Trochlear (IV)
D. Trochlear (IV)
Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the inferior, medial, superior rectus, inferior oblique, and levator palpebrae muscles of the eye?
A. Olfactory (I)
B. Optic (II)
C. Oculomotor (III)
D. Trochlear (IV)
C. Oculomotor (III)
Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the lateral rectus muscle of the eye?
A. Trochlear (IV)
B. Trigeminal (V)
C. Abducens (VI)
D. Facial (VII)
C. Abducens (VI)
The dura plane that separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum is the:
A. Roof cerebelli, transverse
B. Tentorium cerebelli, transverse
C. Transverse cerebelli, sigmoid
D. Triangle cerebelli, sagittal
B. Tentorium cerebelli, transverse
In the following diagram, identify the following arterial branches of the celiac trunk:  Right hepatic artery; Left hepatic artery; Proper hepatic artery; Celiac trunk; Splenic trunk; Left gastric artery; Gastroduodenal artery
In the following diagram, identify the following arterial branches of the celiac trunk:

Right hepatic artery; Left hepatic artery; Proper hepatic artery; Celiac trunk; Splenic trunk; Left gastric artery; Gastroduodenal artery

1. Celiac trunk…………………………2. Splenic trunk
3. Left gastric artery…………………4. Common hepatic artery
5. Gastroduodenal artery………….6. Proper hepatic artery
7. Left hepatic artery………………..8. Right hepatic artery
In the diagram, identify the following structures:  Inferior mesenteric vein; Splenic vein; Right gastric artery; Portal Vein
In the diagram, identify the following structures:

Inferior mesenteric vein; Splenic vein; Right gastric artery; Portal Vein

1. Portal Vein………………….2. Right gastric artery
3. Splenic vein………………..4. Inferior mesenteric vein
In the diagram, identify the following structures of the biliary tract:  Common bile duct; Ampulla of Vater; Intrahepatic ducts; Right hepatic duct; Left hepatic duct; Gallbladder; Cystic duct; Common hepatic duct
In the diagram, identify the following structures of the biliary tract:

Common bile duct; Ampulla of Vater; Intrahepatic ducts; Right hepatic duct; Left hepatic duct; Gallbladder; Cystic duct; Common hepatic duct

1. Intrahepatic ducts…. …….2. Left hepatic duct
3. Right hepatic duct………..4. Common hepatic duct
5. Gallbladder………………….6. Cystic duct
7. Common bile duct……… 8. Ampulla of Vater
In the diagram, identify the following nerves in the axillary region:
In the diagram, identify the following nerves in the axillary region:
1. Thoracodorsal…………………..2. Long thoracic
3. Medial pectoral………………….4. Lateral pectoral
Traffic patterns in the surgery department are designed to:
A. Aid in preventing surgical site infections
B. Provide access for the public
C. Promote negative air pressure in the operating rooms
D. Maximize air currents in the department
A. Aid in preventing surgical site infections
What is the principal foal of suctioning blood and body fluids from the wound?
A. Dissection of tissue
B. Retract tissue
C. Improve wound visibility
D. Measure blood loss
C. Improve wound visibility
The principal goal of the surgical assistant during the surgical procedure is to:
A. Dissect tissue
B. Apply dressings
C. Provide exposure
D. Position the patient
C. Provide exposure
Which of the following characteristics of drape materials is the correct?
A. Able to absorb fluids
B. Flame retardant
C. Reflect operating lights
D. Contain line
B. Flame retardant
Which of the following types of patients is at risk for developing a latex sensitivity?
A. Child with spina bifida
B. Patient with multiple sclerosis
C. Patient with a shellfish allergy
D. Child with Hirshsprung’s disease
A. Child with spina bifida
Which of the following should be confirmed before administration of any blood products?
A. Date of expiration
B. Clots are present
C. Registration number on blood bag matches patients ID number
D. Blood product is homologous
A. Date of expiration
The recommended minimum number of air exchanges in the O.R. is:
A. 5 times and hour with three exchanges of fresh air
B. 10 times and hour with four exchanges of fresh air
C. 15 times and hour with three exchanges of fresh air
D. 10 times and hour with four exchanges of fresh air
C. 15 times and hour with three exchanges of fresh air
If a surgical assistant places the operative patient’s well being above all other factors, the the surgical assistant is said to have a strong:
A. Ethical sense
B. Surgical conscience
C. Moral judgment
D. Set of values
B. Surgical conscience
Seepage of skin preparation solution under a patient may result in:
A. Bruising
B. Nerve damage
C. Chemical Burns
D. Skin abrasion
C. Chemical Burns
The frozen section examination provides the surgeon with a:
A. Guideline for antibiotic therapy
B. Diagnosis for tuberculosis
C. Quick preliminary diagnosis
D. Microscopic examination of smear and cultures
C. Quick preliminary diagnosis
When assisting the surgeon with the draping, where should the surgical assistant stand in relation to the surgeon?
A. On the opposite side of the O.R. table from the surgeon
B. On the same side of the O.R. table as the surgeon
C. Near the foot of the O.R. table
D. At the head of the O.R. table
A. On the opposite side of the O.R. table from the surgeon
Studies show that the lowest infection rates have been obtained in surgical cases where patient body hair was:
A. Not removed
B. Removed using a depilatory
C. Cut with surgical clippers
D. Shaved
A. Not removed
A hemodynamic complication in the patient could be caused by:
A. Administration of 100% oxygen
B: Myocardial ischemia
C. Premature ventricular contractions
D. Neurological thoracic outlet syndrome
B: Myocardial ischemia
Infants are at the risk of losing body heat quickly due to their:
A. Thin layer of subcutaneous brown fat for insulation
B. Higher body mass in comparison to and adult
C. Lower blood volume
D. High demand or need fr oxygen
A. Thin layer of subcutaneous brown fat for insulation
Heat loss from the body occurs by all the following methods except:
A. Radiation
B. Evaporation
C. Condensation
D. Conduction
C. Condensation
The earliest sign of MH is:
A. Pyrexia
B. Increase in end tidal CO2
C. Sudden cardiac arrest
D. Cyanotic skin and finger tips
B. Increase in end tidal CO2
Intraoperative fluid and electrolyte imbalance are affected by:
A. Stress and anxiety, especially in children
B. Blood loss, fluid shifts and replacement
C. Adequate oxygenation and saturation
D. Heart muscle contactility and function
B. Blood loss, fluid shifts and replacement
Vitamin D deficiency can lead to:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
C. Hypocalcemia
Acid based imbalances reflect:
A. Hypoxia, hypothermia and hypovolemia
B. A blood pH of 7.35 to 7.45
C. The oxygen supply being equal to the oxygen demand
D. Oxygen saturation of 80-100 mmHg at sea level
A. Hypoxia, hypothermia and hypovolemia
Platelet concentration is often transfused during the immediate preoperative period for the purpose of:
A. Preserving clotting ability
B. Preventing hypovolemia
C. Treating hypoproteinemia
D. Correcting Rh mismatch in prenatal women
A. Preserving clotting ability
Hemolytic reactions caused by ABO incompatibility are most often caused by:
A. Blood transfusions lasting more than four hours
B. Human clerical error and improper identification
C. Blood contaminated with pyrogenic bacteria
D. Antibodies to the donor foreign proteins
D. Antibodies to the donor foreign proteins
The correct arm placement when positioning a patient supine with arms extended on armboards is:
A. Armboards extended >90 deg. with palms facing up
B. Armboards extended <90 deg. with palms facing down C. Armboards extended >90 deg. with palms facing down
D. Armboards extended <90 deg. with palms facing up
D. Armboards extended <90 deg. with palms facing up
The force of integumentary injuries that results from the skin remaining stationary while the underlying tissues shift is known as:
A. Pressure
B. Shearing
C. Friction
D. Maceration
B. Shearing
Which of the following is a potential physiological response when lowering a patient’s legs from the lithotomy position?
A. Hypotension
B. Hypertension
C. Bradycardia
D. Tachypnea
A. Hypotension
The correct range fr the pneumatic tourniquet pressure on an average adult for an upper extremity is:
A. 150-200 mmHg
B. 200-250 mmHg
C. 250-300 mmHg
D. 300-350 mmhg
C. 250-300 mmHg
The setting of the pneumatic tourniquet pressure on an average adult for a lower extremity should be:
A. Lower than the systolic pressure by one-half of the value
B. Higher than the diastolic pressure by one-half of the value
C. Lower than the diastolic pressure by one-half of the value
D. Higher than the systolic pressure by one-half of the value
D. Higher than the systolic pressure by one-half of the value
The most common skin cancer is:
A. Primary melanoma
B. Actinic keratosis
C. Basal cell carcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Basal cell carcinoma
In the event that a child needs an emergency procedure and the parents cannot be located to sign the permission:
A. No permission is necessary
B. Permission is signed by a court of law
C. Permission is signed by the surgeon
D. Permission is signed by two consulting physicians
D. Permission is signed by two consulting physicians
The principle of personal liability:
A. Applies only to someone employed outside of a hospital
B. Holds everyone legally responsible for their own negligent actions
C. Holds the hospital responsible for negligence
D. Prevents malpractice suits against hospital employees
B. Holds everyone legally responsible for their own negligent actions
By definition, carcinoma in situ is a malignant neoplasm that has not:
A. Extended beyond the basement membrane
B. Spread throughout the parenchyma of the organ
C. Invaded by direct extension into adjacent organs
D. Metastasized thought the body from regional lymph nodes
A. Extended beyond the basement membrane
The blood component administered to patients with a clotting problem is:
A. Packed red blood cells
B. Platelets
C. Whole blood
D. Serum albumin
B. Platelets
Which of the following refers to a civil wrong committed against a person or property, not including a breach of contract?
A. Tort
B. Malpractice
C. Assault and battery
D. Negligence
A. Tort
Which of the following is the normal value of the BUN for adults?
A. 7-18 mg/dl
B. 18-29 mg/dl
C. 29-40 mg/dl
D. 40-51 mg/dl
A. 7-18 mg/dl
The specific gravity of a normal urine sample is:
A. 1.015-1.025
B. 1.025-1.035
C. 1.035-1.045
D. 1.045- 1.055
A. 1.015-1.025
During lateral positioning, a:
A. Pillow is placed between the legs
B. Sandbag is placed between the knees
C. Rolled towel is placed under the bottom leg
D. Sheet is folded flat between the legs
A. Pillow is placed between the legs
The lithotomy position requires each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Patient’s buttocks rest along the break between the body and leg sections of the O.R. table
B. Stirrups are at equal height on both sides of the O.R. table
C. Stirrups are at the appropriate height for the length of the patient’s leg to maintain symmetry
D. Each leg is raised slowly and gently as it is grasped by the toes
D. Each leg is raised slowly and gently as it is grasped by the toes
In which of the following circumstances could the patient sustain an injury to the pudendal nerves?
A. Positioned on the fracture table
B. Placed in lateral chest position
C. Placed in lithotomy position
D. Positioned on the urological table
A. Positioned on the fracture table
An imperforation or closure of a normal opening is called:
A. Hypertrophy
B. Atresia
C. Stenosis
D. Atrophy
B. Atresia
A lower oblique incision is called a/an:
A: Pfannenstiel
B. Inguinal
C. Paramedian
D. Midabdominal
B. Inguinal
Normal adult male range for RBC is:
A. 4.2-6.1 mill/ul
B. 2.8-4.2 mill/ul
C. 1.4-2.8 mill/ul
D. 0.4-1.4mill/ul
A. 4.2-6.1 mill/ul
The normal adult range for WBC is:
A. 5,000-10,000/mm^3
B. 10,000-15,000/mm^3
C. 15,000-20,000/mm^3
D. 20,000-25,000/mm^3
A. 5,000-10,000/mm^3
Normal adult range for sodium is:
A. 102-113 mEq/L
B. 113-124 mEq/L
C. 124-135 mEq/L
D. 136-145 mEq/L
D. 136-145 mEq/L
Normal adult range for potassium is:
A. 1.5-3.5 mEq/L
B. 3.5-5.5 mEq/L
C. 5.5-7.0 mEq/L
D. 7.0-8.5 mEq/L
B. 3.5-5.5 mEq/L
Which of the following types of blood components is the most common source of bacterial infection in a transfusion?
A. WBCs
B. RBCs
C. Platelets
D. Plasma
C. Platelets
The doctrine of respondent superior refers to:
A. The legal terms for assault and battery
B. Employer liability for employee’s negligent conduct
C. Professional misconduct
D. “The thing speaks for itself.”
B. Employer liability for employee’s negligent conduct
The legal doctrine that mandates every professional to carry out his or her duties according to national standards of care practiced throughout the country is the:
A. Doctrine of reasonable man
B. Doctrine of res ipsa loquitur
C. Doctrine of superior
D. Doctrine of informed conscent
A. Doctrine of reasonable man
Liability is a legal rule that:
A. Holds the patient responsible for dictating his/her care
B. Holds each individual responsible for his or her own actions
C. Holds the hospital responsible for its personnel
D. Holds the surgeon solely responsible for the care of the patient
B. Holds each individual responsible for his or her own actions
Which of the following is a result of potassium imbalance?
A. Bone loss
B. Decreased osmotic pressure
C. Cardiac arrhythmias
D. Water intoxication
C. Cardiac arrhythmias
A vaginal response would be:
A. Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia
C. Hypothermia
D. Pyrexia
B. Bradycardia
The normal pH of urine is:
A. 1.2- 4.6
B. 4.6- 8.0
C. 8.0-1 1.4
D. 11.4- 14.0
B. 4.6- 8.0
A white count of 14,000 cu/mm could most likely indicate:
A. An infection
B. Normal range
C. An anemic condition
D. The count is low
A. An infection
When an immediate confirmation of malignancy is needed, the specimen will be sent to pathology for:
A. Permanent section
B. Culture and sensitivity
C. Frozen section
D. Identification
C. Frozen section
A method t protect tissue from the CO2 laser is to cover the area with:
A. Dry towels
B. Steri drape
C. Ioban drape
D. Wet towels
D. Wet towels
Mechanical, thermal, and chemical are appropriate mechanisms to achieve:
A. Hemodialysis
B. Hemostasis
C. Hemolysis
D. Hemoptysis
B. Hemostasis
Significantly decreased volume of circulating blood or plasma in the body may cause the patient to go into:
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Anaphylactic shock
C. Metabolic crisis
D. Malignant hyperthermia
A. Hypovolemic shock
The purpose of hemostasis is to:
A. Prevent blood loss
B. Allow for oxygen diffusion
C. Increase blood flow
D. Promote active bleeding
A. Prevent blood loss
Which of the following are considered biological hazards in the operating room?
A. Anesthetic gases and toxic fumes
B. Irradiation and cleaning agents
C. Cytotoxic drugs and gases
D. Body fluids and laser plume
D. Body fluids and laser plume
Which of the following is the most common change in vital signs that is associated with early hypovolemic shock?
A. Bradycardia
B. Decreased blood pressure
C. Tachypnea
D. Tachycardia
D. Tachycardia
Measures to treat atelectasis include:
A. Bed rest and limited ambulation
B. Pain control and early ambulation
C. Repeated vigorous coughing
D. Antimycotic agents
B. Pain control and early ambulation
The most appropriate devices to prevent skin pressure ulcers and deep tissue injury in the O.R. are:
A. Sand bags
B. Gel pads
C. Towels
D. Sheets
B. Gel pads
Which nerve can be injured if the legs are improperly flexed at the hip in the lithotomy position?
A. Obturator
B. Saphenous
C. Femoral
D. Peroneal
A. Obturator
Drains are typically passed to the exterior through which of the following?
A. Superior aspect of the incision
B. Inferior aspect of the incision
C. Adjacent stab wound incision
D. Medial aspect of the incision
C. Adjacent stab wound incision
Which dressing is used when moderate to heavy fluid drainage is expected?
A. Three layer
B. Biologic
C. Pressure
D. Rigid
A. Three layer
In the lateral chest position, a sandbag or padding is placed under the chest at the axillary level to:
A. Aid in position stability
B. Prevent pressure on the lower arm
C. Promote proper body alignment
D. Add warmth for the patient
B. Prevent pressure on the lower arm
Chvostek’s signs can indicate:
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypomagnesemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypocalcemia
The proper placement of the legs for a patient in the lateral position is:
A. Both legs straight
B. Both legs flexed
C. Lower leg flexed, upper leg straight
D. Lower leg straight, upper leg flexed
C. Lower leg flexed, upper leg straight
Ulnar nerve damage could result from:
A. Improper placement of legs in stirrups
B. External rotation of the shoulder
C. Hyperextension of the neck
D. Placement of elbow on unpadded table
D. Placement of elbow on unpadded table
Which of the following is at the greatest risk for fluid volume deficit?
A. Trauma victim with extensive burns of the body
B. Congestive heart failure patient
C. Healthy elderly patient with a fractured hip
D. Athlete with compound fracture
A. Trauma victim with extensive burns of the body
Clostridium perfringens is associated with which clinical condition?
A. Gas gangrene
B. Toxic shock syndrome
C. Botulism
D. Anthrax
A. Gas gangrene
Phagocytosis by the white blood cells is an example of the body’s:
A. First line of defense
B. Second line of defense
C. Third line of defense
D. Fourth line of defense
B. Second line of defense
Cell “drinking” is called:
A. Phagocytosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Osmosis
D. Diffusion
B. Pinocytosis
An organelle that is responsible for the packaging of proteins is the:
A. Golgi complex
B. Mitochondria
C. Cilia
D. Nucleus
A. Golgi complex
An organelle that contains digestive juices is the:
A. Nucleus
B. Lysosome
C. Ribosome
D. Golgi complex
B. Lysosome
The anaerobic bacterium that causes gas gangrene is:
A. Clostridium perrfringens
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Treponema pallidum
A. Clostridium perrfringens
Which of the following are procaryotic?
A. Molds
B. Protozoa
C. Bacteria
D. Plants
C. Bacteria
Which of the following are eucaryotic?
A. Viruses
B. Fungi
C. Cyanobacteria
D. Bacteria
B. Fungi
The gram stain differenciates:
A. Viruses
B. Bacteria
C. Helminths
D. Prions
B. Bacteria
An emergency drug that increases myocardial contractility is:
A. Calcium chloride
B. Levophed
C. Lasix
D. Isuprel
A. Calcium chloride
Which of the following body systems evokes a physiologic response that is similar to the response evoked by sympathomimetic cardiovascular drugs?
A. Endocrine systems
B. Sympathetic nervous system
C. Lymphatic system
D. Parasympathetic nervous system
B. Sympathetic nervous system
One kilogram is equal to:
A. 10 grams
B. 100 grams
C. 1,000 grams
D, 10,000 grams
C. 1,000 grams
All of the following statements concerning hematocrit are true EXCEPT:
A. Normal range for women is 37-43%
B. Hematocrit value is the volume of red blood cells expressed as the number of cells per cubic millimeter
C. A decrease in hematocrit indicates a decrease in red blood cells
D. Hematocrit readings are unreliable after blood transfusion administration
B. Hematocrit value is the volume of red blood cells
General and regional anesthesia contribute to body heat loss by causing:
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Vasospasm
C. Vasodilation
D. Vascularization
C. Vasodilation
The primary drug utilized to treat MH is:
A. Diazepam
B. Dalalone
C. Dantrolene
D. Dienestrol
C. Dantrolene
The isotonic solution that is closest to human physiology is:
A. D5NS
B. LR
C. 0.9 NS
D. 0.45 NS
C. 0.9 NS
When a drug loses its effectiveness in a patient, the patient is said to heave developed:
A. Tachyphylaxis
B. Hypersensitivity
C. Hyperactivity
D. Antagonist action
A. Tachyphylaxis
What is the mechanism of action of heparin:
A. Breaks down the clot
B. Prevents formation of new clots
C. Inhibits Vitamin K synthesis
D. Decreases platelet aggregation
A. Breaks down the clot
The only depolarizing muscle relaxant in the clinical use is:
A. Rocuronium (Zemuron(R))
B. Vecuronium (Norcuron(R))
C. Cistracurium (Nimbex(R))
D. Succinylcholine (Anectine(R))
D. Succinylcholine (Anectine(R))
Lidocaine with epinephrine is contraindicated in surgery of the:
A. Shoulder
B. Knee
C. Hand
D. Hip
C. Hand
A patient scheduled for surgery has a hematocrit reading of 45% of total blood volume, which is:
A. Within normal range
B. Below normal range
C. Above normal range
D. Inconclusive
A. Within normal range
When drawing a blood sample, a safe time lapse between blood drawing and analysis is:
A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 1 hour
A. 10 minutes
When given as a preoperative medication, atropine produces:
A. Analgesia
B. Drowsiness
C. Drying of secretions
D. Lowering of anxiety
C. Drying of secretions
A drug combined with heparin that causes a postoperative loss of anticoagulant activity is:
A. Papaverine
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Tromethamine
D. Angiovist
B. Protamine sulfate
The drug added to a local anesthetic to increase diffusion is:
A. Alpha-chymotrypsin
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Epinephrine
D. Varidase
B. Hyaluronidase
Which of the following is a measurement of the pressure of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood?
A. Partial pressure
B. PaCO2
C. PaO2
D. QO2
B. PaCO2
Which of the following is a measurement of the amount of bicarbonate in arterial blood?
A. HCO3
B. pH
C. PO4
D. COHb
A. HCO3
Which of the following is not an inhalation anesthetic agent?
A. Enflurane (Ethrane (R))
B. Propofol
C. Sevoflurane
D. Nitrous oxide
B. Propofol
Cephalothin sodium (Keflin(R)) is a/an:
A. Antibiotic
B. Steroid
C. Diuretic
D. Mydriatic
A. Antibiotic
A drug used to reverse hypotension is:
A. Isoproterenol hydrochloride (Isuprel(R))
B. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal(R))
C. Procainamide hydrochloride (Pronestyl(R))
D. Levarterenol (Levophed(R))
D. Levarterenol (Levophed(R))
Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol(R)) is a/an:
A. Analgesic
B. Bronchial dilator
C. Vasoconstrictor
D. Sedative
A. Analgesic
Dextran is used parenterally to:
A. Expand blood plasma volume
B. Nourish vital tissue
C. Carry oxygen through the system
D. Increase blood viscosity
A. Expand blood plasma volume
A barbiturate that may be used for sleep the night before surgery is:
A. Diazepam
B. Meperidine
C. Secobarbital
D. Scopolamine
C. Secobarbital
Common pathogens infecting traumatic wounds often require the use of:
A. Penicillinase-resistant penicillin
B. Aminoglycoside
C. Ampicillin
D. Tetracycline
A. Penicillinase-resistant penicillin
What is the amount of time that heparin is systemically distributed in the adult:
A. 3 minutes
B. 6 minutes
C. 9 minutes
D. 12 minutes
A. 3 minutes
Which of the following is an example of an isotonic IV solution?
A. 0.9% sodium chloride
B. 5% dextrose in water
C. Lactated ringer’s solution
D. Hartmann’s solution
A. 0.9% sodium chloride
The volume of red blood cells in whole blood is determined by which of the following tests?
A. Differential count
B. Hematocrit
C. Hemoglobin
D. Bleeding time
B. Hematocrit
A common complication during emergence from general anesthesia is:
A. Hypotension
B. Hypoxia
C. Hyperthermia
D. Hyperemia
B. Hypoxia
Which of the following antibiotics should not be given as a preoperative prophylaxis to a pediatric patient?
A. Aztreonam
B. Gentamicin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Cefazolin
C. Ciprofloxacin
During the administration of general anesthesia, there is a loss of the eyelid reflex in stage:
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
B. II
Aminoglycosides are a category of antibiotics that:
A. Inhibit bacterial replication
B. Can cause severe ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
C. Are broad spectrum
D. Can cause photosensitivity
B. Can cause severe ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
Which of these local anesthetics has a longer duration?
A. Xylocaine
B. Marcaine (R)
C. Novocaine
D. Cocaine
B. Marcaine (R)
A microscopic blood count that estimates the percentages of each type of leukocyte within a sample is called a:
A. Platelet
B. Differential
C. Hematocrit
D. Hemoglobin
B. Differential
Some patients may show the most severe and life threatening type of reaction to certain drugs known as:
A. Asthma
B. Tachyphylaxis
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Autoimmune disease
C. Anaphylaxis
A broad spectrum bactericidal antibiotic that interferes with synthesis of the cell wall and has a chemical structure similar to the penicillins is:
A. Cefazolin
B. Aminoglycoside
C. Tetracycline
D. Sulfonamide
A. Cefazolin
Cricoid pressure is applied to prevent:
A. Hemorrhage
B. Infection
C. Bronchospasm
D. Aspiration
D. Aspiration
Epinephrine should be used in which of the following situations:
A. Glaucoma
B. Tachycardia
C. Hypertension
D. Anaphylaxis
D. Anaphylaxis
Which of the following is a narcotic antagonist?
A. Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan(R))
B. Butorphanol tartrate (Stadol(R))
C. Pentazocine hydrochloride (Talwin(R))
D. Propoxyphene hydrochloride (Darvon(R))
A. Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan(R))
The reversal agent for heparin induced anti-coagulation is:
A. Sodium warfarin
B. Propofol
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Narcan (R)
C. Protamine sulfate
Which of the following should not be administered to a patient who is exhibiting asystole?
A. Isoproterenol
B. Atropine
C. Procyclidine hydrochloride
D. Lidocaine
A. Isoproterenol
According to the Mallampati classification of preoperatively assessing airway adequacy for intubation purposes, what is Class III?
A. Soft palate, anterior and posterior tonsillar pillars and uvula are visualized
B. Only the base of the uvula can be visualized
C. Tonsillar pillars cannot be visualized
D. Uvula cannot be visualized at all
B. Only the base of the uvula can be visualized
In cataract surgery, a viscous jelly sometimes used to occupy space is:
A. Alpha chymotrypsin
B. Mannitol
C. Healon
D. Wydase (R)
C. Healon
A miotic drug is:
A. Pilocarpine
B. Homatropine
C. Atropine
D. Scopolamine
A. Pilocarpine
Which of the following local anesthetics is used most frequently for preoperative ocular instillation?
A. Lidocaine
B. Tetracaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Mepivacaine
B. Tetracaine
A solution used for eye irrigation is:
A. Phenylephrine HCL
B. Normal saline
C. Alpha chymotrypsin
D. Balanced salt solution
D. Balanced salt solution
Which of the following is a dye used in ophthalmic surgery to diagnose corneal abrasions?
A. Fluorescein sodium
B. Methylene blue
C. Indigo carmine
D. Gentain violet
A. Fluorescein sodium
The reactions ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity can be a result of administering:
A. Penicillins
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Cephalosporins
D. Tetracyclines
B. Aminoglycosides
Which of the following drugs paralyzes the sphincter muscle of the iris?
A. Miotics
B. Cycloplegics
C. Enzymes
D. Viscoelastics
B. Cycloplegics
Which of the following statements describes second degree AV block?
A. Conduction time is prolonged, but atrial beats are followed by ventricular beats.
B. Ventricle contacts before the normal series of cardiac cycle
C. Some, but not all, atrial beats are conducted to the ventricles
D. Occurs in the AV node, bundle of His, or any of the bundle branches
C. Some, but not all, atrial beats are conducted to the ventricles
The P-wave displays _______, and the PR segment is caused by the delay in the AV node.
A. Atrial depolarization
B. Electrical activity
C. Ventricular repolarization
D. Activation of right and left ventricles
A. Atrial depolarization
The T-wave indicates:
A. Ventricular repolarization
B. Atrial repolarization
C. The strength of the electrical signal
D. The time interval between atrial and ventricular contractions
Ventricular repolarization
An emergency drug used for treating ventricular fibrillation or tachycardia is:
A. Aramine (R)
B. Atropine (R)
C. Inderal (R)
D. Calcium chloride
Inderal (R)
High doses of nitrous oxide block the metabolism of which of the following?
A. Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
Vitamin B12
An emergency drug used in cardiac surgery that increases myocardial contractility is:
A. Calcium chloride
B. Levarterenol (Levophed (R))
C. Isoproterenol hydrochloride (Isuprel (R))
D. Furosemide (Lasix (R))
Calcium chloride
Cardiac arrhythmias of ventricular origin can be treated with:
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Atropine
C. Lidocaine
D. Furosemide (Lasix (R))
Lidocaine
What is the drug of choice when lidocaine fails to achieve response for treating ventricular tachycardia/ ventricular fibrillation during sudden cardiac arrest?
A. Esmolol
B. Adenosine
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Bretylium
Bretylium
Which of the following methods should the surgical assistant consider when cutting sutures?
A. According to the surgeon’s preference
B. According to the assistant’s preference
C. Leave a one centimeter tail for nonabsorbable suture
D. Cut the knot for absorbable suture
According to the surgeon’s preference
Which of the following would affect normal wound healing?
A. Penicillin allergy
B. Peripheral vascular disease
C. Clean wound
D. Latex allergy
Peripheral vascular diseaser
The most common cause of delayed would healing in the operative patient is:
A. Would infection
B. Tissue loss
C. Dehiscence
D. Adhesions
Wound infection
The three phases of wound healing include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Fibroplastic phase
B. Chronic phase
C. Remodeling phase
D. Inflammatory phase
Chronic phase
Which of the following sutures should not be used in the placement of heart valves?
A. Polypropylene
B. Polyglactin
C. Polydioxanone
D. Polyglecaprone
Polydioxanone
Wounds in which there is significant bacterial contamination, foreign bodies, or extensive tissue trauma are generally closed by which intention?
A. Delayed primary
B. Primary union
C. Lag
D. Granulation
Granulation
Which of the following types of stitch patterns provides an excellent cosmetic closure?
A. Subcuticular stitch
B. Retention stitch
C. Purse string stitch
D. Simple stitch
Subcuticular stitch
The primary factor when selecting the surgical needle is:
A. The metal’s ability to resist corrosion
B. Preventing microbial growth
C. Reducing as much as possible the trauma to the tissue.
D. Ease of loading the needle on the needle holder.
Reducing as much as possible the trauma to the tissue
Which of the following microorganisms is responsible for causing postoperative wound edge erythema and rebound tenderness?
A. S. aureus
B. Clostridium
C. Group B streptococci
D. S. epidermis
group B streptococci
It is recommended that the square knot is:
A. Performed as a two-handed tie
B. Only used on small vessels
C. Performed by placing vertical tension on the final throw
D. Only used on superficial, not deep wound, vessels
Accomplished as a two-handed tie
Which of the following statements concerning the principles of suture placement is correct?
A. Sutures should be placed as close to the wound edge as possible to prevent tissue necrosis.
B. Sutures should be as far as possible from the wound edge to prevent knot slippage and displacement.
C. Sutures should be placed in deep tissue to prevent hematoma.
D. Suture placement should place as much tension on the tissue as possible to promote healing.
x
Sutures placed in a wound to prevent wound evisceration care called:
A. Stent
B. Fixation
C. Retention
D. Traction
x
In which incision could retention sutures he used?
A. Vertical midline
B. McBurney
C. Transferse
D. Thoracoabdominal
x
Which of the following types of stitches incorporates the seromuscular layer and submucosa.
A. Lembert
B. Connell
C. Halsted
D. Cushing
x
During hemostasis, prothrombin and thromboplastin, along with calcium ions in the blood, form:
A. Fibrinogen
B. Thrombin
C. Fibrin
D. ADP
x