AP Psych 500 Questions

1. Jill wants to study the process of thinking. Which field of psychology should she choose?
(A) Cognitive
(B) Social
(C) Personality
(D) Learning
(E) Perception
1. (A) Cognitive psychology is the study of how we process, store, and retrieve informa- tion. Choices (B) and (C) are devoted to studying the way people relate to others and the unique attributes of a person; neither field focuses on one’s thought process. (D) deals with long-lasting changes in behavior, usually through experience. (E) is the experience of a meaningful pattern of a stimulus.
2. I believe people choose to live meaningful lives. I share many of the same beliefs as Carl Rogers. Most important, I believe many people have the ability to reach self-actualization. Who am I?
(A) Wertheimer
(B) Skinner
(C) Maslow
(D) Terman
(E) Seligman
2. (C) Abraham Maslow is a humanist. The humanist approach emphasizes that each indi- vidual has free will to determine his or her own future. Self-actualization is an inherent tendency to reach our true potential.
3. Of the following, who is associated with the Gestalt school of psychology?
(A) John Watson
(B) William James
(C) Ivan Pavlov
(D) Max Wertheimer
(E) Sigmund Freud
3. (D) Wertheimer, along with Wolfgang Kohler and Kurt Koffka, studied the illusion of flashing lights and the perception of movement. Wertheimer argued that perceptual expe- riences, such as flashing lights, resulted from a “whole pattern” or, in German, “Gestalt.”
4. Which of the following psychologists wrote The Principles of Psychology?
(A) William James
(B) Wilhelm Wundt
(C) John Watson
(D) Sigmund Freud
(E) Max Wertheimer
4. (A) William James wrote the Principles of Psychology, published in 1890. This book included the study of the mind, sensation, memory, and reasoning. James is associated with functionalism. Wundt is associated with structuralism. Watson is associated with behavior- ism. Freud is associated with psychoanalysis. Wertheimer is associated with Gestalt.
5. Psychology is considered a science mainly because it relies on direct observation. Which field of psychology supports this?
(A) Behaviorism
(B) Psychodynamic psychology
(C) Social psychology
(D) Cognitive psychology
(E) Structuralism
5. (A) John Watson published a paper called “Psychology as a Behaviorist Views It.” Wat- son rejected the notion that introspection can be used as a technique to determine the behavior of human beings. Watson believed psychology needed to be an objective experi- mental science. Unlike choices (B), (C), (D), and (E), behaviorism was the first field to study psychology in an observable and measurable manner.
6. Which of the following best defines eclectic psychology?
(A) The study of animal instinct
(B) The study of child development
(C) The study of abnormal behavior
(D) The study of a variety of theories with in the field
(E) The study of the human brain and central nervous system
6. (D) The definition of the eclectic approach is a combination of techniques and ideas from many different schools of thought in psychology.
7. Psychoanalytic psychology focuses mainly on:
(A) Rewards and punishments
(B) Self-esteem and self-actualization
(C) Biology and genetics
(D) Internalconflictandunconsciousdesires
(E) Sensation and perception
7. (D) The psychoanalytic approach focuses on the idea that each of us has an unconscious that contains thoughts, desires, and fears that have been hidden or repressed because they threaten our conscious self. (A), rewards and punishments, is based on behaviorism. (B), self-esteem and self-actualization, is based on humanism.
8. One major criticism of Ivan Pavlov’s concept of classical conditioning was that:
(A) It did not take into account voluntary human behavior.
(B) It was unethical to use dogs in a psychology experiment.
(C) It did not take into account involuntary behavior.
(D) The findings over lapped with other fields of psychology.
(E) It did not relate to human behavior.
8. (A) In Pavlov’s experiment in which he rang a bell before putting food in the dogs’ mouths, the dogs eventually paired the bell with salivating, even when the food was not present. This phenomenon, which Pavlov called conditioned reflex, eventually became known as classical conditioning. Because this theory was based on involuntary reflexes and many psychologists believe human behavior is based on voluntary choices, they criticized classical conditioning, claiming it could not help us further understand human behavior. This explanation negates choice (C). (D) and (E) are irrelevant to this question.
9. Which of the following psychologists was a structuralist?
(A) John Watson
(B) Wilhelm Wundt
(C) William James
(D) MaxWertheimer
(E) Sigmund Freud
9. (B) Wilhelm Wundt established the first psychological laboratory in 1879. Structuralism
is the study of the most basic elements in our conscious minds. John Watson was a behaviorist.
William James studied functionalism. Max Wertheimer studied Gestalt. Sigmund
Freud studied psychoanalysis.
10. The use of rewards, punishments, and positive reinforcement is an example
of which field of psychology?
(A) Personality
(B) Behavioral
(C) Social
(D) Cognitive
(E) Psychoanalytic
10. (B) The behavioral approach analyzes how organisms learn or modify behavior based on rewards and punishments in the environment. The other choices do not specifically focus on reinforcements in one’s environment.
11. “Give me a dozen healthy infants and my own special world to bring them up in, and I’ll guarantee to take any one at random and train him to become any type of specialist, . . . lawyer, doctor . . .” What psychological approach would support this statement?
(A) Cognitive
(B) Structural
(C) Functional
(D) Behavioral
(E) Psychoanalytic
11. (D) The behavioral approach emphasizes the objective, scientific analysis of observ- able behavior. This includes conditioning human behavior. Choice (A) focuses on an indi- vidual’s thought process or perception. Choices (B) and (C) were both schools of thought that focused on introspection. Psychoanalysis emphasized the strength of the unconscious.
12. Who was considered the father of psychology?
(A) James
(B) Wundt
(C) Wertheimer
(D) Freud
(E) Kohler
12. (B) Wilhelm Wundt is considered the father of psychology. Wundt established the fi rst
psychological laboratory in 1879.
13. One major difference between structuralism and functionalism is:
(A) Structuralists analyze all mental elements, while functionalists analyze only some elements.
(B) Structuralists believe all behaviors stem from the evolutionary process.
(C) Structuralists wish to divide the mind into mental elements while functionalists believe behavior helps an organism adapt to the environment.
(D)Only functionalists believe in the importance of introspection.
(E) Structuralists try to manipulate the mind in order to understand behavior, while functionalists study the conscious mind to understand behavior.
13. (C) Structuralism was infl uenced by the physical scientists of the time. Wundt emphasized
that all complex substances could be separated into component elements, whereas
functionalists examined behaviors from a diff erent point of view. Functionalists were asking
what the mind does and why. Choice (C) best exemplifi es these concepts. (A) is too vague
and inaccurate to be the correct answer. (B) does not represent either structuralism or functionalism.
(D) is incorrect because both structuralism and functionalism used introspection
as a means of determining human behavior. Once again, choice (E) is not using accurate
information to defi ne either structuralism or functionalism
14. The idea that psychology is not based on scientific fact or human shortcomings but instead should focus on human experience is the basis for which psychological approach?
(A) Cognitive psychology
(B) Structuralism
(C) Behaviorism
(D) Functionalism
(E) Humanism
14. (E) Th e basis of humanism is the understanding that individuals have free will and a
large capacity for reaching their potential. It is the human experience that we all share that
enables individuals to attain such goals. Cognitive psychology is incorrect because it focuses
on the process of thinking, perception, and attention to details of language and problem
solving. Cognition does not emphasize the human experience. Structuralism focuses
on complex mental elements. Behaviorism is based on relationships, stimulus-response,
and rewards and punishments. Functionalists examined mental processes, not human
15. Clients who work with their therapists to explore their past to discover the source of their illness would be seeking what type of therapy?
(A) Psychoanalytic (B) Humanist
(C) Cognitive
(D) Eclectic
(E) Behavioral
15. (A) Psychoanalysis stresses the importance of the patient and psychologist working
together to explore the client’s past. Humanism emphasizes one’s present and future, not
one’s past. Cognitive psychology works on changing the client’s way of thinking, again
not placing much emphasis on the past. Eclectic simply means using several diff erent
approaches of psychology. Behavioral psychology tries to identify negative behaviors and
eliminate them through such means as systematic desensitization.
16. Psychodynamic psychology focuses mainly on which of the following?
(A) Free will and self-actualization
(B) Experiments in controlled settings
(C) The collective unconscious
(D) Thoughts,impulses,anddesiresbeyondtheconsciousbeing
(E) Practical introspection
16. (D) Psychodynamic psychology stresses the infl uence of the unconscious. Its fears,
impulses, and desires motivate our conscious behavior. Choice (A), free will and selfactualization,
refers to humanism. (B) refers to experimental psychology. (C) refers to part of Carl Jung’s theory of personality development.
17. A developmental psychologist focuses mainly on:
(A) The conscious experiences of an infant
(B) The manner in which a child develops the ability to speak, learn, and understand the world around him or her
(C) The mental process that helps a young person adapt to his or her environment
(D) The identification of one’s environment and respond set of the environment
(E) Experiments that emphasize actual behavior, rather than controlled settings
17. (B) Developmental psychologists study a person’s biological, emotional, cognitive, and
social development across the life span. Choice (A) is too vague to be the correct answer.
(C) is incorrect because mental process refers to cognitive psychology, not developmental
psychology. (D) and (E) are incorrect because they do not answer the question.
18. Phenomenology is best defined as:
(A) The study of natural, unanalyzed perception
(B) The process of thinking and memory
(C) The study of psychological mental health
(D) The study of language development
(E) The process of consistent patterns and organized sets
18. (A) Choice (A) is the defi nition of phenomenology, the study of natural, unanalyzed
19. The term biological psychology is concerned with:
(A) Aggression and sexual behavior
(B) Depression and anxiety
(C) Genetics and the nervous system
(D) Socialanxiety
(E) Drug treatment
19. (C) Biological psychologists focus on the ways changes in an organism’s physical
makeup can aff ect behavior, relating directly to genetics and the nervous system. Choices
(A), (B), and (D) are incorrect because biological psychologists do not study the mind or
life experiences. Choice (E) may appear to be correct, but the question is asking what the
term biological psychology refers to, which is not drug treatment.
20. A case study is:
(A) A primary tool for investigation into a client’s unconscious through dream analysis and free association
(B) A study done over an entire life span of one individual, giving the psychologist detailed information of one’s psyche
(C) A study that exposes the subject to some event and measures coping skills
(D) An independent study used outside the natural environment of the subject
(E) A comparative study of various people of different ages at the same time
20. (A) Choice (A) is the defi nition for a case study. Choice (B) defi nes a longitudinal
study. Choice (E) defi nes a cross-sectional study. Choices (C) and (D) do not defi ne any
type of study
21. Which of the following research methods does not permit researchers to draw conclusions regarding cause-and-effect relationships?
(A) Experimental research
(B) Surveys
(C) Case studies
(D) Correlational research
(E) Naturalistic observations
21. (D) A correlation expresses a relationship between two variables without ascribing
cause. Correlational research employs statistical methods to examine a relationship between
two or more variables, but does not permit researchers to draw conclusions. Unlike correlational
research, experimental research off ers the opportunity to draw conclusions because
of the strict control of variables.
22. A random sample can best be defined as:
(A) A sample in which each potential participant has an equal chance of being selected
(B) A sample that is carefully chosen so the characteristics of participants correspond to the larger population
(C) A selection of cases from a larger population
(D) A selection of cases from the control group
(E) A sample of a larger population from the experimental group
22. (A) A random sample is defi ned as a sample in which each potential participant has
an equal chance of selection. Choice (B) defi nes representative sample. Choice (C) defi nes
the term sample, not random sample. Choices (D) and (E) do not accurately defi ne random
23. The Hawthorne effect is best defined as:
(A) Expectations by the experimenter that can influence the results of an experiment
(B) The change in the results of an experiment when it is “blind” versus “double blind”
(C) The idea that people will alter their behavior because of the researchers’ attention and not because of actual treatment
(D) Specific, test table predictions derived from a theory
(E) The idea that subjects in an experiment will lie if the researcher tells them to
23. (C) While researchers were testing the hypothesis that better lighting would boost
worker output in an electric plant in the 1920s, they were surprised to see their results
showed something else entirely. Productivity increased regardless of lighting merely because
of the researcher’s attention and not factory conditions. Choice (A) is incorrect because the
Hawthorne eff ect focuses on the researcher’s attention, not expectations. Choice (B) refers
to the researcher’s bias and change of behavior, not the subject’s.
24. Dr. Bisell conducts an experiment to see whether hunger makes mice run faster through a maze. He randomly assigns 25 mice to a control group or an experimental group. Which cannot be a confounding variable?
(A) Where the experiment takes place
(B) How hungry the mice were before the experiment
(C) How fast the mice are before the race
(D) When the experiment takes place
(E) The population from which he selected the mice
24. (E) A confounding variable is anything that diff ers between the control group and the
experimental group besides the independent variable. How fast and hungry the mice are
at the beginning of the experiment are potential confounding variables. When and where
the race takes place are also possible confounding variables that can potentially change the
fi ndings of this experiment. Th e population from which the mice were selected cannot be
a confounding variable. Th is will not diff er for the two groups. All of the mice were chosen
from the same larger population. Even if this larger population is fl awed, it is not considered
a confounding variable.
25. Marc, a psychology major, collected survey data about the number of hours that college students study for finals and their grades on those finals. His data indicates that students who spend more time studying for finals tend to do better than other students. What can Marc now conclude?
(A) Studying improves a student’s grade on a final exam.
(B) A relationship exists between studying and exam grades.
(C) A significant relationship exists between studying and grades.
(D) Students who do not study for final exams will not do well on those exams.
(E) Students with higher IQs tend to study more than those with
lower IQs.
25. (B) Marc has established a relationship. Marc did not conduct an experiment; therefore,
he cannot draw any conclusions. Marc has found a correlation between studying
and performance on a fi nal exam; whether or not it is signifi cant would require the use of
inferential statistics.
26. Jordan runs an experiment testing the effects of sugar consumption on aggression levels in children. He randomly assigns 20 subjects either to a control group given sugar-free candy or to the experimental group that was given the same candy that did contain sugar. He then tests the subjects’ response to several different puzzles, each with increasing difficulty. Jordan hypothesizes that sugar levels do play a role in aggression in children. In order to know whether his hypothesis has been supported, Jordan will need to use:
(A) Descriptive statistics
(B) Means-to-end statistics
(C) Experimental research
(D) Scatterplots
(E) Inferential statistics
26. (E) Jordan would need to use inferential statistics to determine whether the experimental
group’s aggression levels were signifi cantly diff erent. Jordan could very well use descriptive
statistics, but not before he determines whether his hypothesis has been supported and
represents the larger population.
27. Which of the following coefficients of a correlation indicate the weakest relationship between two variables?
(A) 0.51
(B) −0.28
(C) 0.08
(D) −1.00
(E) 1.00
27. (C) Correlational research allows the researcher to determine whether a relationship
exists between two variables. A positive correlation means that high scores on one variable
tend to be paired with high scores on the other variable. A number between −1 and +1
expresses the strength of the correlation. A negative correlation means that high scores on
one variable tend to be paired with low scores on the other variable. Th e number 0 denotes
the weakest possible correlation or no correlation at all.
28. The observation in a classroom that the higher the room temperature, the
lower student performance would be an example of:
(A) Negative correlation
(B) Zero correlation
(C) Positive correlation
(D) Independent correlation
(E) Dependent correlation
28. (A) A negative correlation is expressed as −1. Th is means that as one variable goes up,
the other variable will go down. In this case, as the room temperature went up, the student
performance went down, indicating a negative correlation.
29. In an experiment, Sydney is going to investigate how alcohol affects aggression. The number of alcoholic drinks the subject has is called:
(A) Controlled variable
(B) Independent variable
(C) Dependent variable
(D) Experimental variable
(E) Positive variable
29. (B) Th e independent variable in the experiment is the variable that is manipulated to
test its eff ects on the other, dependent variables. In this experiment, the manipulation of
the number of alcoholic drinks given to the subjects will aff ect their levels of aggression.
Th e dependent variable in the experiment is measured to see how it is changed from the
manipulation of the independent variable.
30. If a researcher is trying to establish a causal relationship between eating breakfast and work performance, the researcher should use which of the following methods of research?
(A) Case study
(B) Correlational research
(C) Experimental research
(D) Survey
(E) Statistics
30. (C) With experimental research the strict control of variables off ers the researcher the
opportunity to draw conclusions about cause-and-eff ect relationships. In this instance, if
the researcher wants to establish a causal relationship between eating breakfast and work
performance, experimental research must be used. Correlational research does not allow the
researcher to draw conclusions. Surveys simply allow the researcher to gather an immense
amount of data in a short period of time.
31. Which part of the brain is responsible for combining sounds into words and arranging words into meaningful sentences?
(A) Broca’s area
(B) Wernicke’s area
(C) Hypothalamus
(D) Hippocampus
(E) Medulla
31. (A) Th e Broca’s area is located in the left frontal lobe. It is necessary for combining
sounds into words and arranging words into meaningful sentences. Wernicke’s area plays a
role in understanding speech. Th e hypothalamus is part of the limbic system and regulates
motivational and emotional behavior. Th e hippocampus is involved in transferring fl eeting
memories into permanent storage. Th e medulla is responsible for heart rate and blood
32. Damage to the cerebellum would most likely result in:
(A) Respiratory failure
(B) Heart failure
(C) Loss of muscular coordination
(D) Loss of hearing
(E) Loss of memory
32. (C) Th e cerebellum is a region of the hindbrain that is involved in motor control and
coordinating movements. Damage to this region would therefore cause loss of muscular
33. The pons is located between the medulla and other brain areas. It is responsible for which of the following?
(A) Motor coordination
(B) Seeing and hearing
(C) Sleep and arousal
(D) Balance
(E) Emotional reactions
33. (C) Th e pons is a bridge that connects the spinal cord to the brain. Cells in the pons
manufacture chemicals involved in sleep.
34. When humans suffer damage to this part of the brain, there can be a lapse into a permanent state of unconsciousness.
(A) Temporal lobe
(B) Parietal lobe
(C) Frontal lobe
(D) Cerebrum
(E) Reticular formation
34. (E) Th e reticular formation arouses and alerts the forebrain and prepares it to receive
information from all other senses. Damage to this location can cause permanent unconsciousness.
Damage to the temporal lobe can cause speech and language issues. Damage to
the frontal lobe can cause motivational and emotional issues. Damage to the parietal lobe
can cause sensory motor issues.
35. An EEG records:
(A) Direct electrical stimulation of the brain
(B) The number of neurons in the brain
(C) Electrical impulses from the brain
(D) Chemicalactivityinspecificareasofthebrain
(E) Stimulation of the frontal lobe
35. (C) By measuring electrical impulses, an EEG (electro-encephalogram) can detect epileptic
seizures, covert processing, seizure disorders, and sleep disorders.
36. Which part of the brain is affected during a split-brain operation?
(A) Cerebellum
(B) Corpus callosum
(C) Cerebrum
(D) Medulla
(E) Pons
36. (B) Th e corpus callosum is a wide band of fi bers that connect the left and the right
hemispheres of the brain. It has 200 million neural fi bers that allow information to pass
back and forth between the hemispheres. It was believed that by cutting the corpus callosum,
in what was known as a “split-brain” operation, people suff ering from epilepsy could
decrease the number of seizures they had.
37. The limbic system is responsible for
(A) The control of hunger, thirst, and sex
(B) Breathing regulations
(C) Balance and coordination
(D) Speech
(E) Language
37. (A) Th e limbic system is a group of about half a dozen interconnected structures in
the core of the forebrain that are involved in many motivational behaviors, such as eating,
drinking, and sexual desire. Breathing regulations are controlled by the medulla. Th e cerebellum
controls balance and coordination. Various regions in the left hemisphere of the
brain control speech and language.
38. The main job of the thalamus is:
(A) Receiving sensory information and relaying it to the appropriate area
(B) Processing sensory information about touch, pain, and temperature
(C) Regulating motivational and emotional behavior
(D) Coordinatingmovementsandtimedmotorresponses
(E) Controlling all auditory functions of the brain
38. (A) Th e thalamus is often referred to as the “switchboard” of the brain. All sensory
information that enters the brain goes through the thalamus. It is the job of the thalamus
to relay the information to the appropriate region of the brain.
39. Bodily sensations such as touch, pressure, and temperature are controlled in which area of the brain?
(A) Occipital lobe
(B) Temporal lobe
(C) Frontal lobe
(D) Parietallobe
(E) Motor lobe
39. (D) Th e parietal lobe is located directly behind the frontal lobe. Its functions include
processing sensory information from the body parts, which includes touching, locating limb
positions, and feeling temperature. Th e occipital lobe is responsible for processing visual
information. Th e temporal lobe is responsible for processing auditory information. Th e
frontal lobe is responsible for interpreting and performing emotional behavior, behaving
normally in social situations, and maintaining a healthy personality.
40. As a result of her car accident, Mimi suffered damage to her Broca’s area of
the brain. What symptoms will she suffer as a result?
(A) Inability to see color
(B) Inability to speak in fluent sentences
(C) Inability to walk
(D) Inability to remember short term
(E) Inability to remember long term
40. (B) Damage to the Broca’s area will result in Broca’s aphasia, which means a person
cannot speak in fl uent sentences but can understand written and spoken words.
41. If damage occurs to the occipital lobe, an individual could fail to recognize some objects, persons, or color. This damage is called:
(A) Visual aphasia
(B) Visual agnosia
(C) Neglect syndrome
(D) Occipital agnosia
(E) Temporal aphasia
41. (B) Th e occipital lobe is critical for recognizing objects. Damage to this area results in
diffi culties of recognition, a condition called visual agnosia. In visual agnosia the individual
fails to recognize some object, person, or color, yet has the ability to see and describe parts
of some visual stimuli.
42. A “split-brain” patient is asked to stare at a black dot between the HE and ART as the word HEART is displayed on a screen. When asked what she sees, what will the patient do?
(A) The patient will say she sees the word HE.
(B) The patient will say she sees the word ART.
(C) The patient will point to the word ART.
(D) The patient will say the word HEART.
(E) The patient will only see a black dot.
42. (B) Th e patient will be able to say she saw the word ART because it was projected to
the left hemisphere, which has the ability to control speech. Although the patient’s right
hemisphere saw the word HE, the right hemisphere turns out to be mute, meaning that it
cannot say what it saw. However, the patient can point with her left hand to a photo of HE,
indicating the right hemisphere understood the question.
43. Knowing what you are touching or how hot to make the water for your shower involves which of these areas of the brain?
(A) Temporal lobe
(B) Motor cortex
(C) Cerebrum
(D) Frontallobe
(E) Somatosensory cortex
43. (E) The somatosensory cortex is a narrow strip of the cortex that is located at the front
edge of the parietal lobe. It processes sensory information about touch, location of limbs,
pain, and temperature.
44. Emma is telling her younger sister stories about her first Christmas in their new home. Which part of the brain is Emma using to recall these memories?
(A) Hypothalamus
(B) Thalamus
(C) Amygdala
(D) Hippocampus
(E) Medulla
44. (C) The amygdala is involved in forming, recognizing, and remembering emotional
experiences, unlike the hippocampus, which is responsible for transferring fleeting memories
into permanent storage.
45. An MRI involves:
(A) Passing nonharmful radio frequencies through the brain to study brain structure
(B) Injecting a slightly radioactive solution into the bloodstream to measure the amount absorbed by the brain
(C) Mapping the brain’s activity by having the patient complete cognitive tasks
(D) Followingbrainimagestogetanexactmeasurementofbrainsize, capacity, and abilities
(E) Testing patients’ brain damage after severe brain injuries
45. (A) An MRI, or magnetic resonance imaging, involves passing nonharmful radio frequencies
through the brain. A PET scan, or positron emission tomography, involves injecting
slightly radioactive solutions into the bloodstream.
46. Maddie is walking down a dark alley by herself late at night. She automatically turns her head to the left when she hears a strange noise. What part of the brain is she using?
(A) Hindbrain
(B) Midbrain
(C) Forebrain
(D) Somatosensorycortex
(E) Motor cortex
46. (B) Th e midbrain is involved in visual and auditory refl exes, such as automatically
turning your head toward a noise. Th e hindbrain has three distinct structures: the pons,
the medulla, and the cerebellum. Th e forebrain is responsible for a large number of functions,
including learning and memory. Th e motor cortex is involved in the initiation of all
voluntary movements.
47. Dylan has recovered from extensive injury to his left cerebral hemisphere and has continued his career. His occupation is most likely:
(A) Accountant
(B) English teacher
(C) Journalist
(D) Lawyer
(E) Graphic artist
47. (E) Choice (E) is the only career that needs some amount of creativity, which is controlled
by the right hemisphere. Th e other choices are all careers that need strong language,
logical reasoning, and writing skills. Th e left hemisphere controls these skills. Damage to
the left hemisphere would make those careers diffi cult.
48. Which of the following is not controlled by the hypothalamus?
(A) Sex
(B) Eating and drinking
(C) Balance and coordination
(D) Motivation
(E) Emotion
48. (C) Balance and coordination are controlled by the cerebellum. All of the other choices
are controlled by the hypothalamus.
49. Which of the following is not part of the limbic system?
(A) Hypothalamus (B) Thalamus
(C) Cerebellum (D) Amygdala
(E) Hippocampus
49. (C) Th e limbic system is a group of structures in the forebrain that are involved in
motivational behavior. Th e four structures that make up the limbic system are the hippocampus,
hypothalamus, thalamus, and amygdala.
50. Wernicke’s area is located on which lobe of the brain?
(A) Left temporal lobe
(B) Right temporal lobe
(C) Left occipital lobe
(D) Right occipital lobe
(E) Left frontal lobe
50. (A) Th e Wernicke’s area is located in the left temporal lobe. Th is area plays a role in
understanding speech.
51. Which part of the neuron serves as the protective coating?
(A) Axon
(B) Dendrite
(C) Synapse
(D) Myelin sheath
(E) Cell body
51. (D) Th e myelin sheath is composed of fatty material that wraps around and insulates an
axon. Th e axon is a single threadlike structure that carries signals away from the cell body.
Th e dendrites are branchlike extensions that arise from the cell body. Th e synapse is a small
space that exists between an end bulb and adjacent cell body. Th e cell body provides fuel
and maintains the neuron.
52. Another name for the cell body of the neuron is:
(A) Dendrite
(B) Myelin
(C) Soma
(D) Axon
(E) Synaptic vesicle
52. (C) Another name for the cell body is the soma, a relatively large structure that maintains
the entire neuron
53. The process by which a tiny electrical current is generated when the positive sodium ions rush inside the axon, causing the inside of the axon to reverse its charge, is called:
(A) Action potential
(B) Ion potential
(C) Resting state
(D) Synapticstate
(E) Negative potential
53. (A) If a stimulus is large enough to excite a neuron, two things will happen to the axon.
First the stimulus will eventually open the axon’s chemical gates by stopping the sodium
pump. Second, when the stoppage of the sodium pump causes the gate to open, thousands
of positive ions will rush in. Th e action potential is a tiny electrical current that is generated
when positive sodium ions rush into the axon. A resting state is when the axon has a charge,
like a battery, with positive ions on the outside and negative ions on the inside.
54. If Mia stepped on a nail, which of the following would be the correct order of communication for her to feel the pain?
(A) Stimulus-electrical impulse-neurotransmitter-receptor site
(B) Electrical impulse-stimulus-receptor site-neurotransmitter
(C) Receptor site-neurotransmitter-electrical impulse-stimulus
(D) Electricalimpulse-receptorsite-stimulus-neurotransmitter
(E) Stimulus-electrical impulse-receptor site-neurotransmitter
54. (A) When you step on a sharp object, you seem to feel the pain almost immediately.
Neurons send signals at speeds as high as 200 miles per hour. To feel the pain involves
several events happening in this order: Th e stimulus—in this example, stepping on a nail—
begins the reaction. Sensors in your skin then pick up the mechanical pressure and transforms
it into an electrical impulse. When the impulse reaches the end bulb it releases the
neurotransmitter, which is the chemical messenger that transmits information between
nerves and body organs. Since the stimulus must come fi rst, choices (B), (C), and (D) can
be eliminated. Choice (E) is incorrect because the neurotransmitter has to be released before
anything can reach the receptor site.
55. What is the job of the sodium pump?
(A) It separates positive ions and places them all inside the axon.
(B) It is responsible for keeping the axon charged by returning and keeping sodium ions outside the axon membrane.
(C) It generates an electrical current when the positive ions rush into the axon.
(D) It generates an electrical current when the negative ions rush in to the axon.
(E) It is a neural impulse that transfers negative ions into the neuron.
55. (B) Th e sodium pump is a transport process that picks up any sodium ions that enter
the axon’s chemical gates and returns them back outside. Choice (A) is incorrect because
when the axon is charged, positive ions are on the outside while negative ions are on the
inside. Choices (C) and (D) do not correctly defi ne a sodium pump. Choice (E) is incorrect
because the sodium pump is not a neural impulse
56. If an action potential starts at the beginning of an axon, the action potential will continue at the same speed to the very end of the axon. This concept is known as:
(A) Nerve impulse
(B) Synapse
(C) Resting state
(D) All-or-nonelaw
(E) Sodium pump
56. (D) Th e all-or-none law is the principle that the action potential in a neuron does not
vary in strength; the neuron either fi res at full strength or it does not fi re at all. Choice (B)
is incorrect because the synapse is the area composed of the axon terminal of one neuron
and the dendrite of the next neuron. Choice (C) is incorrect because the resting state is
when a neuron is positively charged outside and negatively charged on the inside. Choice
(E) is incorrect because the sodium pump is a transport process that picks up sodium ions.
57. Which of the following functions best explains the role of the sympathetic nervous system?
(A) Preparing the body for a traumatic event
(B) Returning the body to equilibrium
(C) Preparing the body for “fight or flight”
(D) Maintainingthebody’svitalfunctions
(E) Maintaining homeostasis
57. (C) Th reatening or challenging physical or psychological stimuli triggers the sympathetic
nervous system. Th is increases physiological arousal and prepares the body for action.
Th e sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for “fi ght or fl ight.” Th e parasympathetic
nervous system helps return the body to equilibrium, also called homeostasis.
58. Which of the following neurotransmitters most closely resembles the affects alcohol has on the nervous system?
(A) Anandamide
(C) Dopamine
(D) Acetylcholine
(E) Serotonin
58. (B) Alcohol aff ects the nervous system in a number of ways, blocking neural receptors
and stimulating others. Some neurons are excited by the neurotransmitter GABA, which
the brain normally manufactures. Alcohol molecules so closely resemble those of GABA
neurotransmitters that alcohol can function like GABA and open GABA receptors. Anandamide
is involved in memory, motor coordination, and emotions. Dopamine is critical to
the way the brain controls movement; there is a direct link to dopamine levels in the body
and Parkinson’s disease and schizophrenia. Acetylcholine is a major excitatory neurotransmitter.
Serotonin infl uences mood levels in the body.
59. What is one major difference between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems?
(A) The sympathetic nervous system increases physiological arousal, while the parasympathetic nervous system returns the body to a calmer and relaxed state.
(B) The sympathetic nervous system is a subdivision of the somatic nervous system, while the parasympathetic nervous system is a subdivision of the autonomic nervous system.
(C) The sympathetic nervous system plays a role in traumatic events, while the parasympathetic nervous system only plays a role in digestion.
(D) The parasympathetic nervous system is used more often than the sympathetic nervous system.
(E) The sympathetic nervous system plays a role in sexual behavior, while the parasympathetic nervous system does not.
59. (A) Th e sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system are both
subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system. Th e sympathetic nervous system prepares
the body for threatening or challenging situations, which means increased blood pressure
and increased heart rate. Th e parasympathetic nervous system returns the body to a relaxed
state, for example, decreased heart rate
60. Neurons that carry information away from the spinal cord to produce responses in various muscles or organs throughout the body are called:
(A) Afferent neurons
(B) Interneurons
(C) Neuro transmitters
(D) Sensorneurons
(E) Efferent neurons
60. (E) Efferent neurons carry information away from the spinal cord to produce responses
in various muscles. Afferent neurons carry information from the senses to the spinal cord.
Interneurons carry information within the central nervous system.
61. The basic experience of the stimulation of the body’s senses is called:
(A) Sensation
(B) Perception
(C) Adaptation
(D) Cognition
(E) Conduction
61. (A) Sensation is the experience of sensory stimulation. Perception is the process of
creating meaningful patterns from the sensory information. Adaptation is the decreasing
response of the sense organs upon exposure to a continual stimulation.
62. Taste: 1 gram of table salt in 500 liters of water, smell: 1 drop of perfume diffused throughout a three-room apartment, touch: the wing of a bee falling on your cheek from a height of 1 centimeter away. These are all examples of:
(A) The just-noticeable difference of our senses
(B) The difference threshold for our senses
(C) The absolute threshold of our senses
(D) The adaptation of our senses
(E) The perception of our senses
62. (C) Th e minimum intensity of physical energy required to produce any sensation at
all in a person is called absolute threshold. Th e diff erence threshold, also known as the justnoticeable
diff erence, is the smallest change in stimulation that can be detected 50 percent
of the time
63. Weber’s law can best be defined as:
(A) The smallest change in stimulation that can be detected 50 percent of the time
(B) The principle that the just-noticeable difference for any given sense is a constant proportion of the stimulation being judged
(C) The principle that there is an adjustment of sensation levels depending on the stimulation received
(D) The idea that the least amount of energy detected in a stimulation only occurs 50 percent of the time
(E) The theory that all stimuli respond to the same sensations through the process of creating meaningful patterns
63. (B) Weber’s law states that the JND (just-noticeable diff erence) for any given sense is
a proportion of the stimulation being judged. Hearing, for example, is very sensitive: we
can detect a 0.3 percent change in sound. By contrast, producing a JND in taste requires
a 20 percent change.
64. The name of the transparent protective coating over the front part of the
eye is:
(A) Lens
(B) Iris
(C) Pupil
(D) Fovea
(E) Cornea
64. (E) Th e transparent protective coating over the front part of the eye is the cornea. Th e
lens focuses the light onto the retina. Th e iris is the colored part of the eye. Th e pupil is the
small opening in the iris where light enters. Th e fovea is the area of the retina that is the
center of the visual fi eld.
65. The function of the lens is to:
(A) Project an image onto the cornea
(B) Focus an image on the retina
(C) Locate an image
(D) Contain receptor cells that are sensitive to light
(E) Locate the blind spot
65. (B) Th e lens is the transparent part of the eye inside the pupil that focuses light onto
the retina
66. The greatest density of cones exists in which part of the eye?
(A) Cornea
(B) Lens
(C) Pupil
(D) Fovea
(E) Retina
66. (D) Th e photoreceptors with a conelike shape are called cones. Th ey are primarily
located in the center of the retina, called the fovea. Th e fovea is the correct answer, and not
the retina, because the question was looking for the location of the greatest density of cones.
67. An afterimage can best be defined as:
(A) Sense experience that occurs after a visual stimulus has been removed
(B) Decreased sensitivity of rods and cones in bright light
(C) Increased sensitivity of rods and cones in darkness
(D) Distinguish able fine details of a stimulation
(E) Non-distinguishable details of a stimulation
67. (A) An afterimage is a visual sensation that continues after the original stimulus is
removed. For example, if you stare at a blue square, you will see a yellow afterimage.
68. The theory of color that best explains color afterimage is:
(A) The volley theory
(B) The trichromatic theory
(C) The opponent-process theory
(D) The subtractive color theory
(E) The monochromatic theory
68. (C) On the basis of his work with afterimages, physiologist Ewald Hering suggested
that the visual system codes colors by using two complementary pairs: red/green and blue/
yellow. Hering’s idea became known as the opponent-process theory. Th e trichromatic
theory says there are three diff erent kinds of cones in the retina, not related to an afterimage.
Th e volley principle has to do with receptors in the ear and has no relation to an afterimage.
69. Trichromats can mix which three colors to perceive virtually any hue?
(A) Red, blue, green
(B) Red, blue, yellow
(C) Blue, yellow, green
(D) Red,green,yellow
(E) Yellow, orange, green
69. (B) Trichromats are people who have normal color vision. Trichromats perceive all
hues by combining the colors red, blue, and green.
70. The three small bones of the inner ear are called what?
(A) Cochlear bones
(B) Tympanic bones
(C) Basilar
(D) Ossicles
(E) Auditory canals
70. (D) Th e three small bones are called the hammer, anvil, and stirrup, also known as
the ossicles.
71. When the molecules of a skunk’s spray enter your nose, the molecules are transformed into electrical signals, or impulses, that are interpreted by the brain as an unpleasant odor. This is an example of:
(A) Adaptation
(B) Transduction
(C) Sensation
(D) Perception
(E) Stimulation
71. (B) Transduction refers to the process in which a sense organ, in this case the nose,
changes or transforms physical energy into electrical signals that become neural impulses,
which may be sent to the brain for processing. Choice (A) is incorrect because adaptation
refers to a decreased response to a stimulation. Choice (C) is incorrect because sensation is
a meaningless bit of information. Choice (D) is incorrect because perception is meaningful
sensory experiences.
72. Which of the following occupations relies heavily on kinesthetic and vestibular senses?
(A) Doctor
(B) Pilot
(C) Gymnast
(D) Artist
(E) Engineer
72. (C) A gymnast relies on both her kinesthetic and her vestibular senses. Her kinesthetic
senses are relaying messages pertaining to muscle strain and movements; her vestibular
senses are supplying feedback about her body position. Kinesthetic senses are senses of
muscle movement, posture, and strain on muscles and joints. Vestibular senses are the
senses of equilibrium and body position.
73. Frequency is to as amplitude is to .
(A) sensation; perception
(B) loudness; pitch
(C) pitch; loudness
(D) perception; sensation
(E) warmth; cold
73. (B) Loudness is our subjective experience of a sound’s intensity. Th e brain calculates
loudness from specifi c physical energy, in this case the amplitude of sound waves. Pitch is
our subjective experience of a sound being high or low. Th e frequency of the sound wave
is measured in cycles.
74. Olfactory cells are the receptors for what sense?
(A) Taste (B) Hearing (C) Vision (D) Smell (E) Touch
74. (D) Th e olfactory cells are located in two one-inch-square patches of tissue in the
uppermost part of the nasal passages.
75. The binocular cue for depth perception based on signals from muscles that turn the eyes to focus on near or approaching objects is called:
(A) Convergence
(B) Retinal disparity
(C) Shape constancy
(D) Interposition
(E) Perceptual vision
75. (A) Convergence is a binocular cue for depth perception based on signals sent from
muscles that turn the eye. To focus on near or approaching objects, these muscles turn the
eyes inward, toward the nose. Retinal disparity refers to the diff erent position of the eyes
receiving slightly diff erent images. Shape constancy refers to the tendency to perceive an
object as retaining the same shape even when you view it from diff erent angles. Interposition
comes into play when objects overlap
76. As a car drives away, it projects a smaller and smaller image on your retina. Although the retinal image grows smaller, you do not perceive the car as shrinking because of:
(A) Shape constancy
(B) Size continuity
(C) Size constancy
(D) Shapecontinuity
(E) Size perception
76. (C) Size constancy refers to our tendency to perceive objects as remaining the same
size even when their images on the retina are continually growing or shrinking. Choice (A),
shape constancy, refers to changing shapes, not necessarily size.
77. Which of the following is not a monocular depth cue?
(A) Linear perspective
(B) Interposition
(C) Relative size
(D) Texturegradient
(E) Convergence
77. (E) Convergence is a binocular cue, meaning the cue depends on the movement of
both eyes. Choices (A), (B), (C), and (D) are monocular cues, that is, cues that are produced
from a single eye
78. The final step required to convert vibrations into sound sensations takes place in which part of the ear?
(A) Ossicles
(B) Outer ear
(C) Cochlea
(D) Middleear
(E) Auditory receptors
78. (C) Th e cochlea is located in the inner ear. Th e cochlea contains the receptors for hearing,
and its function is transduction, transforming vibrations into nerve impulses that are
sent to the brain for processing into auditory information.
79. Which of the following statements best defines the gate control theory of
(A) Pain impulses are sent to receptor sites in vital organs.
(B) Nonpainful nerve impulses compete with pain impulses to reach the
brain, creating a neural blockage.
(C) Stimuli of various kinds activate free nerve endings.
(D) Pain is simply a psychological state, not a physiological one.
(E) Perception of pain depends on one’s physical makeup.
79. (B) Th e gate control theory explains that you may not notice pain from a headache or
injury while thoroughly involved in some other activity, because impulses from that activity
close the neural gate and block the passage of painful impulses
80. Black-and-white vision with greatest sensitivity under low levels of illumination describes the role of:
(A) The cones
(B) The cornea
(C) The fovea
(D) Therods
(E) The pupil
80. (D) Rods are photoreceptors that contain a single chemical, called rhodopsin, which
is activated by small amounts of light. Because rods are extremely light sensitive, they allow
us to see in dim light, but to see only black, white, and shades of gray. Cones are photoreceptors
that contain three chemicals called opsins, which are activated in bright light and
allow us to see color.
81. Which of the following is not considered to be an altered state of consciousness?
(A) Sleep
(B) Hypnosis
(C) Psychoactive drugs
(D) Exercise
(E) Meditation
81. (D) Altered states of consciousness result from using any number of procedures, such
as meditation, psychoactive drugs, hypnosis, or sleep deprivation. Choices (A), (B), (C),
and (E) all diff er from normal consciousness. Th e chief characteristic of these altered states,
unlike exercise, is that we perceive our internal and external environments in ways diff erent
from normal perception.
82. Driving a car along a familiar route while listening to the radio or thinking of something else is an example of:
(A) Automatic process
(B) Controlled process
(C) Somatic process
(D) Sympatheticprocess
(E) Parasympathetic process
82. (A) Th e automatic process is any activity that requires little awareness, takes minimal
attention, and does not interfere with ongoing activities. All of these characteristics describe
what sometimes happens while people are driving a familiar route. Choice (B) requires full
awareness. Choices (C), (D), and (E) do not pertain to this question.
83. When researchers removed all time cues, such as light, clock, radio, and television, from subjects’ environment, the length of the day expanded from 24 to about 25 hours. This phenomenon is known as:
(A) The interval timing clock
(B) The circadian rhythm
(C) The biological clock
(D) The internal rhythm
(E) The external clock
83. (B) Th e circadian rhythm refers to a biological clock that is genetically programmed
to regulate physiological responses within a time period of 24-25 hours (one day). Most
of us operate on a 24-hour day and thus set back our sleep-wake circadian clock about one
hour each day. Choice (A), interval timing clock, works more like a stopwatch, which helps
a person to time his or her movements, such as knowing when to start or stop an activity.
Choice (C), biological clock, is an internal timing device used to regulate various physiological
responses, but it is not genetically programmed.
84. The hormone most closely related to one’s sleep patterns is:
(A) Serotonin
(B) Norepinephrine
(C) Epinephrine
(D) Melatonin
(E) Dopamine
84. (D) Melatonin is a hormone that is secreted by the pineal gland. Melatonin secretion
increases with darkness and decreases with light, playing a role in the regulation of circadian
rhythms and in promoting sleep. Serotonin is related to mood levels and mood control.
Norepinephrine works as a stress hormone and is directly related to “fi ght or fl ight.” Epinephrine,
when produced by the body, increases heart rate and blood pressure. Dopamine
also relates to the sympathetic nervous system, increasing heart rate and blood pressure.
85. The sleep stage that is a transition from wakefulness to sleep and lasting
1-7 minutes is:
(A) REM sleep
(B) Stage 1 sleep
(C) Stage 2 sleep
(D) Stage3sleep
(E) Stage 4 sleep
85. (B) Stage 1 sleep is a transition stage from wakefulness to sleep. In this stage a person
gradually loses responsiveness to stimuli and experiences drifting thoughts and images.
REM sleep, or paradoxical sleep, is marked by physiological arousal and voluntary muscle
paralysis. Stage 2 sleep marks the beginning of a deeper sleep. Stages 3 and 4 are characterized
by low-frequency waves; stage 4 specifi cally is considered to be the deepest sleep stage.
86. Which stage of sleep is characterized by delta waves (very high amplitude and very low frequency)?
(A) Stage 4 sleep
(B) Stage 3 sleep
(C) Stage 2 sleep
(D) Stage1sleep
(E) REM sleep
86. (A) Stage 4 sleep is also called slow wave, or delta, sleep. It is characterized by waves of
very high amplitude and low frequency, called delta waves.
87. When in this stage of sleep, brain waves have a fast frequency and low amplitude and look very similar to beta waves, which occur when you are wide-awake and alert. Which state of sleep is this?
(A) Stage 1 sleep
(B) Stage 2 sleep
(C) Stage 3 sleep
(D) REMsleep
(E) Stage 4 sleep
87. (D) REM sleep is also known as paradoxical sleep. REM brain waves have fast frequency
and low amplitude and look very similar to beta waves, which occur when you are
wide-awake. During this stage your body is physiologically aroused, but your voluntary
muscles are paralyzed. REM sleep stage is highly associated with dreaming.
88. Sleepwalking and sleep talking are characteristics of which stage of sleep?
(A) Stage 1 sleep
(B) Stage 2 sleep
(C) Stage 3 sleep
(D) Stage4sleep
(E) REM sleep
88. (D) Sleepwalking and sleep talking do occur during stage 4 sleep. Many people confuse
this answer with REM stage, because of the belief that sleepwalkers and sleep talkers are acting
out their dreams that occur in REM. But voluntary muscles are paralyzed during REM;
therefore, people cannot physically act out their dreams. Because stage 4 is the deepest stage
of sleep, very often people do not remember sleepwalking or sleep talking.
89. An infant sleeps approximately 17 hours a day. Of those hours, how many are spent in REM?
(A) 20 percent
(B) 30 percent
(C) 50 percent
(D) 70percent
(E) 80 percent
89. (C) From infancy to adolescence, the total amount of time spent in sleep and the
percentage spent in REM gradually decline. Newborns sleep about 17 hours a day, and
50 percent of that time is spent in REM. A four-year-old sleeps about 10 hours, and 25
percent of that time is spent in REM. From adolescence to old age, we maintain the same
amount of sleep time, approximately 7.5 hours of sleep, and the same percentage of REM
sleep, about 20 percent or less.
90. The adaptive sleep theory suggests:
(A) Daily activities deplete key factors in our brain and body that are replenished by sleep.
(B) Sleep evolved because it prevented early humans and animals from wasting energy and exposing themselves to dangers of nocturnal predators.
(C) For our internal clocks to have synchrony with the external world, thereby decreasing fatigue, disorientation, and lack of concentration, sleep is necessary.
(D) Sleep is necessary to combat insomnia and drowsiness.
(E) External environments are constantly competing with individual sleep
rhythms. Sleep is necessary to compete with the external clock.
90. (B) Choice (B) defi nes the term adaptive sleep theory. Support for the adaptive theory
comes from observations that large predatory animals sleep more and wherever they want,
while smaller prey sleep less and in more protected areas. Choice (A) defi nes the term repair
91. The center of the activation-synthesis hypothesis of dreaming is based on the belief that:
(A) The conscious needs to express unfulfilled wishes.
(B) Dreams provide an outlet for repressed thoughts.
(C) Dreams provide explanations for physiological activity.
(D) The unconscious needs to exhibit socially unacceptable behavior
(E) Dreams allow the individual to work out daily hassles.
91. (C) Th e activation-synthesis theory of dreams says that dreaming represents the random
and meaningless activity of nerve cells in the brain. Choices (A) and (B) represent
the Freudian view of dreaming. Choice (E) represents the extension of waking life theory
92. The majority of our dreams occur in which stage of sleep?
(A) REM sleep
(B) Stage 1 sleep
(C) Stage 2 sleep
(D) Stage3sleep
(E) Stage 4 sleep
92. (A) REM sleep, which stands for “rapid eye movement,” is associated with dreaming.
Dream research suggests that about 80-90 percent of the times when subjects are awakened
from REM sleep, they report having had a vivid and long dream. Only about 5-10 percent
of our dreams occur in stage 4 sleep and are less likely to be remembered.
93. The idea that dreams represent wish fulfillment comes from which theory of dream interpretation?
(A) Extension of waking life
(B) Activation synthesis
(C) Spiritual world
(D) Transformation dream analysis
(E) Freud’s theory of dream interpretation
93. (E) Freud’s view on dreaming was the belief that dreams protect the conscious from
the realization of our unconscious desires and wishes, especially sexual or aggressive wishes.
Our dreams transform these desires into harmless symbols and do not disturb our sleep.
Extension of waking life is based on the belief that our dreams refl ect the same thoughts and
concerns we have when we are awake. Th e activation-synthesis theory suggests that dreams
are a product of neural fi rings in our brain. Th e spiritual world theory states that dreams
represent the time when one enters the spiritual world, which helps a person to refl ect on
the past, present, or future, through communication with the souls of people who are no
longer with us.
94. Repeated periods during sleep when a person stops breathing for
10 seconds or longer is known as:
(A) Narcolepsy
(B) Sleep apnea
(C) Sleep agnosia
(D) Insomnia
(E) Night terrors
94. (B) A person with sleep apnea may repeatedly stop breathing, momentarily wake up,
resume breathing, and return to sleep. Narcolepsy is marked by excessive sleepiness usually
in the form of sleep attacks. Insomnia refers to diffi culties in either going to sleep or staying
asleep through the night.
95. A person experiences blind panic, screaming, and thrashing around while sleeping. This episode is called:
(A) A night terror
(B) A nightmare
(C) A sleep terror
(D) Dreaming
(E) A REM rebound episode
95. (A) Night terrors are frightening experiences that often start with screaming, followed
by sudden waking in a fearful state with rapid breathing. Th ey usually occur in stage 4 sleep.
Night terrors are often confused with nightmares, which usually occur during REM sleep.
Th ey are also frightening, but usually produce clear anxiety-producing images.
96. A relatively rare condition that involves irresistible attacks of sleepiness,
brief periods of REM, and often muscle paralysis is called:
(A) Sleep apnea
(B) Sleep terror
(C) Narcolepsy
(D) Benzodiazepines
(E) Night terror
96. (C) Narcolepsy is a chronic disorder. It is characterized by sleep attacks or short lapses
of sleep throughout the day. Th ese attacks are accompanied by REM sleep and muscle
97. REM sleep is also known as paradoxical sleep because:
(A) Measures of the brain activity closely resemble waking consciousness, but the person is in the deepest stage of sleep.
(B) Measures of the brain activity closely resemble waking consciousness, but the person is incapable of moving.
(C) The person’s heart rate is slower than when awake, but the person can sleepwalk or sleep talk.
(D) The person can have night terrors during this stage but will not remember them in the morning.
(E) The person’s vital signs are very slow, but the person can get up and walk around.
97. (B) REM sleep looks very similar to beta waves. Physiologically a person is aroused
during this stage and muscles are paralyzed, which is why this stage is known as “paradoxical
sleep.” Choice (A) is incorrect because REM sleep is not the deepest stage of sleep; stage 4
is. Choice (C) is incorrect because body paralysis occurs during REM; therefore, a person
cannot sleepwalk. Choice (D) is incorrect because night terrors occur in stage 4 sleep, not
REM. Choice (E) is incorrect because a person’s vital signs are actually very aroused in
98.The mental state that encompasses the thoughts, feelings, and perceptions.
that occur when we are reasonably alert is called:
(A) Altered state of consciousness
(B) Subconscious
(C) Preconscious
(D) Alert consciousness
(E) Waking consciousness
98. (E) Waking consciousness is a mental state that encompasses all thoughts and perceptions
that occur when we are awake. Th e altered state of consciousness awareness is diff erent
from the consciously awake person. Choices (B) and (C) represent states of mind diff erent
from the consciously awake person as well
99.Alteration in consciousness that occurs seemingly without effort, typically when we want to momentarily escape reality, is called:
(A) Daydreaming (B) Dreaming (C) Meditation (D) Hypnosis
(E) Anesthesia
99. (A) One of the main reasons people daydream is to escape reality. It is usually done
without eff ort or recognition. In choices (C), (D), and (E), a person does recognize he or
she is doing something to escape, usually with more eff ort. Dreaming, on the other hand,
occurs without any recognition.
100.A sleep disorder characterized by difficulty in falling asleep or remaining asleep is called:
(A) Narcoplepsy
(B) Sleep apnea
(C) Insomnia
(D) Sleepterror
(E) Nightmares
100. (C) Insomnia is diffi culty with either falling asleep or staying asleep. Narcolepsy is a
disorder characterized by sleep attacks. Sleep apnea is marked by periods of sleep when a
person stops breathing.
101. Which of the following is not a characteristic of REM sleep?
(A) Rapid eye movement
(B) Vivid dreams
(C) Increased heart rate
(D) Paralysis
(E) Delta waves
101. (E) Delta waves are slow waves with a very high amplitude and very low frequency.
Delta waves are part of stage 4 sleep, not REM. All of the other choices are defi nite characteristics
of REM sleep
102. Approximately how many cycles of sleep does an adult enter during a full
night’s sleep?
(A) One to two
(B) Th ree to four
(C) Four to fi ve
(D) Six to seven
(E) Seven to eight
102. (C) An adult getting approximately seven to eight hours of sleep will go through four
to fi ve cycles of sleep. A full cycle begins with stage 1 sleep and ends with REM. Th e next
cycle starts at stage 2 and goes up to stage 3 and 4 and back to REM again. Individuals do
not return to stage 1 until around the time they are going to wake up
103. Approximately how long is each cycle of sleep during a full night’s sleep?
(A) 80 minutes
(B) 90 minutes
(C) 60 minutes
(D) 70 minutes
(E) 50 minutes
103. (B) Each stage is 90 minutes. Th e fi rst cycle includes stages 1, 2, 3, 4, and REM. Th e
next cycle begins with stage 2.
104. Experimenters have shown that a person deprived of the
stage of sleep will become anxious, testy, and hungry and have difficulty
(B) Stage 1
(C) Stage 2
(D) Stage 3
(E) Stage 4
104. (A) Many psychologists in the 1950s believed that if people were denied REM sleep
and therefore could not dream, they would suff er mentally and emotionally. Studies today
continue to show long-term detrimental behavioral problems when people do not get
enough REM sleep. Th is is not the case with the other stages of sleep
105. Before entering sleep, you briefl y pass through a relaxed and drowsy state.
Th is is marked by which characteristic?
(A) Beta waves
(B) Delta waves
(C) Alpha waves
(D) Th eta waves
(E) Zeta waves
105. (C) Alpha waves are characteristic of this period before entering sleep. Delta waves
are characteristic of stage 4 sleep. Beta waves are characteristics of REM sleep. Th eta waves
are characteristic of stage 1 sleep.
106. Which part of the brain is important in keeping the forebrain alert and
producing a state of wakefulness?
(A) Hippocampus
(B) Limbic system
(C) Hindbrain
(D) Reticular formation
(E) Medulla
106. (D) Th e reticular formation arouses and alerts the forebrain. It is stimulated in sleeping
animals. Choices (A) and (B) have to do with memory and emotion. Choice (E) has to
do with breathing and heart rate.
107. The dream theory that suggests our dreams reflect the same thoughts, fears,
and concerns present when we are awake is called:
(A) Freud’s theory of dreams
(B) Extension of waking life
(C) Activation-synthesis
(D) External world
(E) Spiritual world
107. (B) Extension of waking life theory suggests that dreams refl ect our thoughts and
concerns from our waking lives, or issues we have on our minds when we are awake. Freud’s
theory suggests our dreams represent our repressed desires and fantasies. Activation synthesis
suggests dreams are a product of our neural fi rings in the brain. Spiritual world theory
suggests when we dream we are in touch with those who have passed on.
108. Eighty percent of our sleep takes place in which cycle of sleep?
(A) Stage 1
(B) Stage 2
(C) Stage 3
(D) Stage 4
(E) All of the above
108. (E) As an adult, 80 percent of our sleep is in NREM. In other words, adults spend 20
percent of their sleep in REM sleep
109. Beta waves are characteristic of a person who is:
(A) Dreaming
(B) In a coma
(C) Asleep but not dreaming
(D) Awake and alert
(E) In stage 1 sleep
109. (A) Beta waves are characteristic of REM sleep. REM sleep is where 90 percent of
our dreaming occurs; therefore, beta waves are characteristic of a person who is dreaming.
110. refers to an increased percentage of time spent in
REM sleep when we are deprived of REM sleep on the previous night.
(A) REM rebound
(B) REM deprivation
(C) REM sleep
(D) REM makeup
(E) REM extension
110. (A) REM rebound is the idea that we go straight to REM sleep when we are sleep
111. According to Ernest Hilgard’s hidden observer theory, people who are hypnotized and told to plunge one hand into a glass of painfully cold ice water with the suggestion they will not feel pain, will respond to the question “Do you feel pain?” by:
(A) Saying they do not feel pain
(B) Waking up from the hypnotic trance
(C) Screaming and removing their hand from the water
(D) Screaming but leaving their hand in the water
(E) Saying they do feel pain
111. (A) Ernest Hilgard developed the hidden observer concept. Th e idea was that under
a hypnotic trance a person’s conscious is actually divided into two parts. Th e hypnotized
part will feel little or no pain and will respond that way orally. Th e unhypnotized part will
feel normal pain sensations but will not answer the question orally. Th is part can respond
to the question by tapping one’s fi ngers.
112. Which of the following drugs are physically addictive?
(A) Morphine
(B) Cocaine
(C) Heroin
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
112. (D) Morphine, cocaine, and heroin are all highly physically addictive drugs, causing
a person abusing these drugs to feel an overwhelming and compulsive desire to obtain and
abuse the drug. Even after stopping, the person has a great tendency to relapse and begin
using the drug again.
113. Which statement best defines dependency?
(A) The original dosage of the drug no longer produces desired effects.
(B) Behavioral patterns are marked by overwhelming desire to obtain and use the drug.
(C) A change in the nervous system occurs so that a person now needs to take the drug to prevent withdrawal symptoms.
(D) Painful physical and psychological symptoms occur after the drug is no longer in the system.
(E) Decompression from the peripheral nervous system begins after the drug enters the body
113. (C) Th e defi nition for dependency is a change in the nervous system that results in
a person’s needing the drug to prevent painful withdrawal symptoms. Choice (A) defi nes
tolerance. Choice (B) defi nes addiction. Choice (D) defi nes withdrawal symptoms.
114. Which of the following drugs block reuptake, leading to increased neural
(A) Heroin
(B) Cocaine
(C) Morphine
(D) Amphetamines
(E) Methamphetamines
114. (B) When excited, neurons secrete neurotransmitters. After a brief period of time,
the neurotransmitters are reabsorbed back into the neuron. Th is process is called reuptake.
If reuptake did not occur, the neurotransmitter would remain in the synapse and neurons
would be continually stimulated. Cocaine blocks reuptake, which leads to increased neural
stimulation, causing increased physical and psychological arousal.
115. Which of the following drugs does not fall under the category of a
(A) Cocaine
(B) Caff eine
(C) Nicotine
(D) Amphetamines
(E) Heroin
115. (E) Stimulants, by defi nition, increase activities of the central nervous system. Th is
results in heightened alertness, arousal, and euphoria. Cocaine, caff eine, nicotine, and
amphetamines are all stimulants. Heroin is an opiate, which is highly addictive and used
for pain reduction.
116. The reduction in the body’s response to a drug, which may accompany
continual drug use, is called:
(A) Withdrawal
(B) Addiction
(C) Dependency
(D) Tolerance
(E) Hallucinations
116. (D) Tolerance occurs after a person uses a drug repeatedly over a period of time. Th e
drug no longer produces the desired eff ects. Withdrawal is the painful symptoms that occur
when a person is no longer taking an addictive drug. Addiction is the behavioral pattern
marked by a compulsive desire for the drug.
117. A teenage boy once described using this drug as “life without anxiety, . . .it makes you feel good.” However, this boy eventually discovered the dark side of the drug. With constant use, dosages became larger and larger.
Eventually getting high was almost impossible and normal functioning was out of the question. Which drug was he referring to?
(A) Cocaine
(B) Nicotine
(C) Heroin
(E) Psilocybin
117. (C) Cravings for heroin, unlike other drugs, become very intense very quickly. During
detoxifi cation, a person can suff er from vomiting, nausea, diarrhea, and chills. Th is is
part of the reason why heroin is such a powerful drug. Although the other choices are also
highly addictive drugs, heroin has such severe withdrawal symptoms that it is much harder
to stop.
118. Hallucinogens are best defi ned as:
(A) Psychoactive drugs that produce strange and unusual perceptual,
sensory, and cognitive experiences
(B) Stimulants that produce arousals both physically and psychologically
(C) Designer drugs that cause three primary eff ects, pain reduction,
euphoria, and tolerance
(D) Mild depressants that decrease heart rate and blood pressure
(E) Drugs that stimulate the central nervous system
118. (A) Hallucinogens are a separate category from stimulants, eliminating choices (B) and (E). Choice (C) describes some characteristics of opiates. Hallucinogens are not depres- sants, thereby eliminating choice (D).
119. In order for a person to be hypnotized, the hypnotist must do which of the
(A) Suggest what the subject will experience during hypnosis
(B) Tell the subject what he or she will be doing while under hypnosis
(C) Tell the subject to count from ten to one
(D) Suggest that the subject enter a trance
(E) Tell the subject to relax and feel no stress
120. Which age group of people is most susceptible to hypnosis?
(A) 20-24
(B) 17-20
(C) 15-19
(D) 8-12
(E) 45-49
121. Cold sweats, vomiting, convulsions, and hallucinations are all symptoms of
what drug?
(B) Cocaine
(C) Methamphetamines
(D) Barbiturates
(E) Heroin
122. are psychoactive drugs that depress the central
nervous system, while stimulate the central nervous
(A) Opiates, barbiturates
(B) Opiates, amphetamines
(C) Barbiturates, amphetamines
(D) Amphetamines, barbiturates
(E) Amphetamines, opiates
123. What are the four major areas of impact of psychoactive drugs?
(A) Appetite, behavior, sex drive, and perception
(B) Perception, behavior, moods, mental processes
(C) Perception, mental processes, appetite, digestion
(D) Appetite, perception, moods, mental processes
(E) Mental processes, moods, digestion, perception
124. Which of the following psychoactive drugs is not a depressant?
(A) Alcohol
(B) Barbiturates
(C) Benzodiazepines
(D) Heroin
(E) Nembutal
125. Th is drug induces a number of physiological and psychological eff ects,
some of which include dilated blood vessels in the eye, dry mouth, time
distortion, euphoric feelings, sense of relaxation, and mild muscular
(A) Alcohol
(B) Marijuana
(D) Tranquilizers
(E) Cocaine
126. Which of the following is not a practical application of hypnosis?
(A) Ease pain
(B) Stop smoking
(C) Remember a painful event
(D) Stop overeating
(E) Marriage counseling
127. In the 1700s a force called “animal magnetism,” later known as hypnosis,
was introduced by:
(A) Sigmund Freud
(B) Ernest Hilgard
(C) Wilhelm Wundt
(D) William James
(E) Anton Mesmer
128. In using hypnosis for pain reduction, patients highly susceptible to
hypnosis were:
(A) More likely to experience posthypnotic amnesia
(B) Less likely to participate in future studies
(C) More likely to report significantly lower pain levels
(D) Less likely to report lower pain levels
(E) Likely to respond more slowly to the induction method
129. All of the following are terms related to hypnosis except:
(A) Posthypnotic amnesia
(B) Hidden observer
(C) Suggestibility
(D) Hypnotic analgesia
(E) Posthypnotic exhortation
130. Which of the following statements best describes opiates?
(A) Opiates will not produce withdrawal.
(B) Opiates are not very addictive.
(C) Marijuana is an example of an opiate.
(D) Opiates are only psychologically addictive.
(E) Heroin is an example of an opiate.
131. A group of ranchers attempts to discourage coyotes from attacking their
sheep by placing a substance on the wool of the sheep that makes coyotes
violently ill if they eat it. Very quickly, the coyotes avoid the sheep
entirely. In this scenario, what are the UCS, CS, and CR, respectively?
(A) Th e substance, the sheep’s wool, aversion to the sheep
(B) Th e sheep’s wool, the substance, aversion to sheep
(C) Aversion to sheep, the substance, the sheep’s wool
(D) Th e coyotes, the sheep’s wool, aversion to sheep
(E) Th e substance, the sheep’s wool, the coyotes
132. Th e same ranchers discover that now not only will the coyotes not attack
the treated sheep but also they will not attack nearby sheep. Th is is an
example of:
(A) Extinction
(B) Discrimination
(C) Generalization
(D) Spontaneous recovery
(E) Chaining
133. In operant conditioning, the Premack Principle states that:
(A) Punishment is ineffective.
(B) Primary reinforcers are used to reinforce desirable behavior.
(C) Punishment is effective when paired with an adversive stimulus.
(D) Acquiring a desired behavior from an individual can be eff ectively
used as a reinforcer for another, less desirable activity.
(E) More desirable behavior can be achieved through positive
134. Mrs. Jackson, an English teacher, gives pop quizzes to her students every
marking period. Th is is an example of:
(A) Variable interval schedule of reinforcement
(B) Variable ratio schedule of reinforcement
(C) Fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement
(D) Fixed interval schedule of reinforcement
(E) Interval ratio schedule of reinforcement
135. In what manner would Ivan Pavlov have conducted extinction trials on his
classically conditioned dogs?
(A) Reinforcing the behavior he wished to extinguish
(B) Repeatedly presenting the conditioned stimulus (bell) without pairing
it with the unconditioned stimulus (food)
(C) Repeatedly presenting dogs with the food and the bell at the same
(D) Immediately giving the dogs food (UCS) after the bell (CS) rings
(E) Repeatedly bringing in different types of food (UCS) and then
reinforcing the salivating immediately after
136. In John Watson’s “Little Albert” experiment, what was the UCS?
(A) Th e white rat
(B) Th e little boy
(C) Anything white and furry
(D) Th e loud noise
(E) Fear
137. Which of the following is true of classical conditioning?
(A) UCS produces UCR
(B) CR produces the CS
(C) UCR produces the CS
(D) CS produces the UCS
(E) UCR produces the UCS
138. Dylan’s mother buys him a sailor’s cap before they go on a family fi shing
trip. On the boat, Dylan gets nauseated and vomits. Th e next day he gets
nauseated just from looking at the sailor’s cap. Th e sailor’s cap has become:
(A) Th e unconditioned stimulus
(B) Th e conditioned stimulus
(C) Th e conditioned response
(D) Th e unconditioned response
(E) Th e reconditioned stimulus
139. Before Dylan became nauseated, he was able to go fishing with his family,
even catching several fish. Fishing is an example of what schedule of
(A) Fixed ratio
(B) Fixed interval
(C) Unfixed interval
(D) Variable ratio
(E) Variable interval
140. Sean sells shoes for a living. His salary depends on how many shoes he can
sell in a two-week period of time. What schedule of reinforcement is Sean
being paid with?
(A) Variable ratio
(B) Variable interval
(C) Fixed ratio
(D) Fixed interval
(E) None of the above
141. A passenger on an airplane was feeling very anxious about an important
job interview the next morning, and as a result he was uneasy and nervous
the entire flight. Back home a week later, he is contemplating a holiday
trip. Though he hadn’t previously been afraid to fl y, he finds himself
suddenly nervous about flying and decides to cancel his plans to visit an
out-of-state relative. What are the UCS, UCR, CS, and CR, respectively?
(A) Job interview, feeling nervous and anxious, flying, feeling nervous and
anxious about flying
(B) Feeling nervous and anxious, flying, out-of-state relative, feeling
anxious and nervous about flying
(C) Flying, feeling nervous and anxious, job interview, feeling nervous
and anxious
(D) Feeling nervous and anxious, job interview, flying, feeling nervous
and anxious
(E) Job interview, feeling nervous and anxious, out-of-state relative,
feeling nervous and anxious
142. As part of a new and intriguing line of research in behavioral medicine,
researchers gave mice saccharine-flavored water and followed it up with
an injection of a drug that weakens mice’s immune systems. Later, when
these mice drank saccharine-flavored water, they showed signs of weakened
immune response. Research is currently under way to see if the reverse is
possible (if conditioning can be used to increase immune functioning), a
discovery that would surely have important implications for new medical
treatments. In this experiment, what is the saccharine-flavored water?
(A) Unconditioned stimulus
(B) Conditioned stimulus
(C) Conditioned response
(D) Unconditioned response
(E) Stimulus response
143. Automobile advertisements, especially those for sports cars, often feature
young, beautiful women. Smart advertisers know and research confirms
that men rate new cars whose ads include an attractive female as faster,
more appealing, better designed, and more desirable than cars with similar
ads that do not include an attractive female. What is the unconditioned
(A) Th e car
(B) Th e advertisement
(C) Th e attractive women
(D) Desire to buy the car
(E) Finding the woman attractive
144. In the preceding scenario, in terms of classical conditioning, what is the
attractive woman?
(A) Th e conditioned stimulus
(B) Th e unconditioned stimulus
(C) Th e conditioned response
(D) Th e unconditioned response
(E) Th e stimulus response
145. Which of the following statements best defines classical conditioning?
(A) A type of learning in which behaviors are produced based on rewards
and punishments
(B) A type of learning based on modeling or imitating the behavior of
(C) A type of learning in which a response naturally elicited by a stimulus
comes to be elicited by a formerly neutral stimulus
(D) Th e process by which experience or practice results in a change in
(E) Th e process by which voluntary behaviors are produced in the
presence of certain stimuli
146. During the conditioning process of Pavlov’s dogs, what element of classical
conditioning did the bell and food play?
(A) CS and UCS
(B) US and CS
(C) UCS and CS
(D) CS and UCR
(E) CS and CR
147. Desensitization therapy can best be defined as:
(A) A conditioning technique that creates an avoidance of certain foods
(B) A conditioning technique that creates a conditioned response from a
formerly neutral stimuli
(C) A conditioning technique that gradually increases one’s desire to
perform a particular behavior
(D) A conditioning technique that uses generalization to get people to
overcome their fears
(E) A conditioning technique designed to gradually reduce anxiety about
a particular object or situation
148. Classical conditioning would best be suited to answer which of the
following questions?
(A) Why do people repeat behaviors when they are followed by
something good?
(B) Why do children know a lot about driving a car before their fi rst time
behind the wheel?
(C) Why do people associate certain foods with nausea?
(D) Why are some animals difficult to train to perform certain kinds of
(E) Why do people imitate behaviors they see someone else get
punished for?
149. Of the following, which would a psychologist consider the best example of
(A) A young man’s beard beginning to grow at age 15
(B) A woman experiencing labor pains
(C) Salmon swimming upstream during the mating season
(D) A child being able to ride a bike
(E) A baby sucking on her mother’s breast for nourishment
150. Th e sight of a needle can trigger fear in some people. Why is this an
example of classical conditioning?
(A) People learn this when they are young.
(B) Th ere is an unconditioned association with fear and the needle.
(C) Needles hurt.
(D) With positive reinforcement one can overcome their fear.
(E) As people get older they overcome this fear.
151. What is one major difference between operant conditioning and classical
(A) Operant conditioning takes place as a result of some voluntary action,
while classical conditioning takes place without choice.
(B) Operant conditioning takes place before the response, while classical
conditioning takes place after the response.
(C) Operant conditioning is learned by association, while classical
conditioning is learned by reinforcement.
(D) Classical conditioning is part of social cognitive learning, while
operant conditioning is not.
(E) Classical conditioning has a stimulus but no response, while operant
conditioning has both a stimulus and a response.
152. Suspending a basketball player for committing a flagrant foul is an
example of:
(A) Negative reinforcement
(B) Positive reinforcement
(C) Punishment
(D) Primary reinforcement
(E) Secondary reinforcement
153. A defendant is harassed and tortured until he confesses. Th is is an
example of:
(A) Positive reinforcement
(B) Negative reinforcement
(C) Punishment
(D) Positive punishment
(E) Negative punishment
154. Punishment can best be defined as:
(A) Th e reinforcement of a behavior every time it occurs
(B) Taking away something unpleasant when the subject performs the
correct behavior
(C) An attempt to weaken a response by following it with something
(D) Adding something unwanted when the subject is not doing the
correct behavior and then stopping it when he or she displays the
correct behavior
(E) Anything that comes to represent a primary reinforcer
155. Which of the following statements best explains E. L. Thorndike’s law of
(A) Behaviors that are negatively reinforced are more likely to discontinue
than behaviors that are punished.
(B) Receiving reinforcement every time a person performs a good deed,
continuous reinforcement, will increase the likelihood that the person
will continue that behavior.
(C) Th e stimuli of food, water, and sex are innately satisfying and require
no learning.
(D) Behaviors are strengthened by positive consequences and weakened
by negative ones.
(E) Behaviors are reinforced through primary reinforcers.
156. B. F. Skinner used his “Skinner Box” to work on a procedure in which the
experimenter successfully reinforced behaviors, which led up to the desired
behavior. Th is procedure is known as:
(A) Reinforcement
(B) Chaining
(C) Primary reinforcers
(D) Secondary reinforcers
(E) Shaping
157. Schedules of reinforcement have a direct effect on maintaining your
behavior. Which of the following schedules of reinforcement is identified
in this example: Calling a friend and getting a busy signal because he or
she is frequently on the phone?
(A) Fixed interval
(B) Variable interval
(C) Fixed ratio
(D) Variable ratio
(E) Fixed variable
158. Which of the following is the best example of a negative reinforcement?
(A) A child getting spanked for bad behavior
(B) A kindergarten student being put in “time-out”
(C) A teenager not being allowed to go to her friend’s party
(D) A mother taking an aspirin to eliminate her headache
(E) A father getting a speeding ticket
159. Which of the following best describes the basic principle behind operant
(A) Th e consequences one receives are directly based on his or her
(B) Th e conditioned stimulus one responds to is called a conditioned
(C) Continuous reinforcement is the best way to reinforce positive
(D) To decrease undesired behaviors one must use negative punishment.
(E) Negative reinforcement and punishment both equally help to rid
unwanted behavior.
160. What is the goal of both positive and negative reinforcement?
(A) To decrease the likelihood that a negative reinforcer will follow a
(B) To increase the likelihood that the preceding behavior will be
(C) To decrease the likelihood that the preceding behavior will be
(D) To ensure there are no negative consequences following the behavior
(E) To add a primary reinforcer after someone does a proper behavior
161. Latent learning can best be described as:
(A) Learning that depends on the mental process
(B) Learning that is not immediately reflected in a behavior change
(C) A learning technique that provides precise information about one’s
inner bodily functions
(D) Learning that is based on rewards and punishments
(E) A type of learning that occurs after the behavior has already been
162. Thorndike’s law of effect neglects the inner drives or motives that make
learners pursue the “satisfying state,” allowing learners to reach their
goals. Which of the following psychologists would have agreed with that
(A) Kohler
(B) Pavlov
(C) Tolman
(D) Skinner
(E) Watson
163. Which of the following scenarios is the best example of a cognitive map?
(A) A dog sits by the window an hour before her owner should return
(B) A little girl remembers to get her jacket before leaving for school.
(C) A boy follows his big sister home on his bicycle.
(D) When asked for directions to his job, a man recites them in great
(E) A teacher remembers all the names of her students.
164. Wolfgang Kohler conducted a series of experiments in which he placed a
chimpanzee in a cage with a banana on the ground just out of his reach
outside of the cage. After a period of inaction, the chimp suddenly grabbed
the stick in the cage, poked it through the cage, and dragged the banana
within reach. Th is type of learning is called:
(A) Insight
(B) Latent
(C) Cognitive
(D) Operant
(E) Observational
165. Harry Harlows’s goal was to get his monkeys to figure out that in any set
of six trials, the food was always under the same box. Initially the monkeys
chose the boxes randomly, sometimes finding food and sometimes not.
However, after a while their behavior changed: after two consistent
trials of finding the correct box, they continually went back to the same
box. Harlow concluded that the monkeys had “learned how to learn.”
According to Harlow the monkeys established:
(A) Cognitive maps
(B) Reinforcers
(C) Cognitive sets
(D) Learned maps
(E) Learning sets
166. Which of the following statements best exemplifies the idea behind social
cognitive learning?
(A) Learning occurs when we see someone else being punished for a
(B) Learning is likely to happen whether we see someone else punished or
rewarded for behavior.
(C) Learning occurs when we see someone else being rewarded for a
(D) Learning is simply based on observation.
(E) Learning is based on external rewards and behaviors.
167. In Albert Bandura’s “bobo” doll experiment, which group of children
spontaneously acted aggressively toward the doll rather quickly?
(A) Model-reward condition
(B) Model-punished condition
(C) No-consequences condition
(D) Reward and punishment condition
(E) No condition
168. Devyn watches a violent television show and then pretends to shoot her
brother Tyler with a toy pistol. A psychologist would say that Devyn has
learned this behavior through:
(A) Operant conditioning
(B) Classical conditioning
(C) Vicarious learning
(D) Latent learning
(E) Learning set
169. Which of the following psychologists would argue that learning can
take place when someone is watching another person and performs that
behavior even when not reinforced?
(A) Edward Tolman
(B) Wolfgang Kohler
(C) B. F. Skinner
(D) John Watson
(E) Albert Bandura
170. Which of the following responses is not learned through operant
(A) Shelly gets $50 after getting a 90 percent in her math class.
(B) A pigeon learns to peck a disc to get food pellets.
(C) A dog learns to turn in circles for a reward.
(D) A baby takes his fi rst steps.
(E) A horse jumps over a fence to avoid an electric shock.
171. Joey is refusing to complete his homework on time. After learning about
Joey’s love of trains, Mrs. Anderson promises to reward Joey with a
Thomas and Friends video upon completion of his next two homework
assignments. Th is is an example of:
(A) Positive reinforcement
(B) Generalization
(C) Insight
(D) Latent learning
(E) The Premack Principle
172. While taking his math placement exam, Spencer became stuck on one
problem. With only five minutes left, he suddenly arrived at the answer.
Th is is an example of:
(A) Latent learning
(B) Insight
(C) Learning set
(D) Abstract learning
(E) Operant conditioning
173. After several attempts at escape with no success, the electrically shocked
dogs give up. At that moment the gates open and the dogs could simply
walk out, but they don’t
174. After overcoming her fear of the dentist, Jada finds out she needs a root
canal. On her way to the dentist’s office, her old fears and anxieties return
and she begins to panic. Th is is an example of:
(A) Generalization
(B) Spontaneous recovery
(C) Discrimination
(D) Insight
(E) Classical conditioning
175. Salina receives a one-thousand-dollar bonus at her job after she sold the
most cars this month. Th e one-thousand-dollar bonus is an example of a:
(A) Primary reinforcer
(B) Secondary reinforcer
(C) Partial reinforcer
(D) Continual reinforcer
(E) Total reinforcer
176. Katie was able to remember the number 111 by associating it with Admiral
Nelson, who happened to have one eye, one arm, and one leg. Th is is an
example of:
(A) Retrieving
(B) Storing
(C) Encoding
(D) Memory
(E) Imagery
177. Which of the following examples best illustrates episodic memory?
(A) Remembering that you got a bicycle for your 12th birthday
(B) Knowing that Christopher Columbus sailed in 1492
(C) Teaching someone how to play tennis
(D) Reciting the alphabet
(E) Understanding a conversation someone is having in a foreign
178. When asked why she fears spiders, Sophia is unable to explain her fears,
where they came from, or how she got them. Th is is an example of:
(A) Semantic memory, which helps us avoid painful memories
(B) Episodic memory, which has knowledge of specific personal
(C) Procedural memory, which holds memories that we are not aware of
(D) Echoic memory, which holds memories we cannot retrieve
(E) Iconic memory, which allows us to forget fear-inducing thoughts
179. Which of the following brain structures plays an important role in memory
storage, from STM to LTM?
(A) Thalamus
(B) Hypothalamus
(C) Amygdala
(D) Hippocampus
(E) Cerebrum
180. Suppose you are absorbed in reading a novel and a friend asks you a
question. You stop reading and ask, “What did you say?” As soon as the
words leave your mouth, you realize you can recall your friend’s exact
words. What is the reason for your ability to play back these words?
(A) Iconic memory
(B) Echoic memory
(C) Semantic memory
(D) Sensory memory
(E) Short-term memory
181. According to the information-processing model, which is the correct order
of inputting information?
(A) Encode semantically, retrieve elaborately, store information
(B) Retrieve from long-term memory, encode in short-term memory,
encode in sensory memory
(C) Encode in sensory memory, encode in short-term memory, encode in
long-term memory
(D) Store information, retrieve upon demand, encode necessary
(E) Encode with sensory receptors, store information, retrieve upon
182. Which of the following statements is not true?
(A) Deep processing involves elaborate rehearsal.
(B) Automatic processing is unconscious encoding of information.
(C) Interference results when new information enters short-term memory
and pushes out old information.
(D) Levels of processing theory says that remembering depends on how
information is encoded.
(E) Declarative memory involves memories for skills, habits, and things
learned through classical conditioning.
183. While walking home from a party drunk, Jeff witnessed a crime. When
questioned by the police the following day, he could not remember what
he saw. After drinking some liquor, Jeff remembered the crime. Th is
phenomenon best illustrates:
(A) Th e framing effect
(B) Short-term memory loss
(C) Hypnotic amnesia
(D) State-dependent memory
(E) Anterograde amnesia
184. Which type of memory is also referred to as working memory?
(A) Long-term memory
(B) Short-term memory
(C) Sensory memory
(D) Semantic memory
(E) Episodic memory
185. Th e ability to maintain exact detailed visual memories over a significant
period of time is called:
(A) Flashbulb memory
(B) Semantic memory
(C) Eidetic memory
(D) Echoic memory
(E) Iconic memory
186. The amygdala is responsible for which of the following types of memories?
(A) Emotional
(B) Procedural
(C) Factual
(D) Iconic
(E) Visual
187. Th e primacy effect is best explained by which of the following statements?
(A) Items on a list with unique meaning are more likely to be
(B) The first items on a list are likely to be more effectively rehearsed and
therefore more likely to be remembered.
(C) Items on a list presented more recently are more likely to be
(D) Items on a list with simplistic meaning are more likely to be
(E) Th e last items on a list are more likely to be encoded first and
therefore remembered.
188. During his English class, Ben is able to recall the author of Th e Scarlet
Letter. Th is type of memory is called:
(A) Procedural
(B) Episodic
(C) Long term
(D) Semantic
(E) Constructive
189. Which of the following statements best explains one major difference
between short-term memory and long-term memory?
(A) Long-term memory is unlimited in capacity while short-term memory
is not.
(B) Long-term memory holds only episodic memories while short-term
memory does not.
(C) Long-term memory varies a great deal from one person to another,
while short-term memory does not.
(D) In terms of processing, long-term memory comes directly after
sensory memory while short-term memory does not.
(E) Long-term memory depends on neural connections in the limbic
system while short-term memory does not.
190. Maintenance rehearsal involves:
(A) Recalling the words at the end of a list
(B) Intentionally repeating information
(C) Processing visual memories
(D) Systematically recalling information
(E) Processing iconic memories
191. Linda looks up a telephone number for take-out pizza. She repeats it over
and over as she dials the number. However, after giving her order and
hanging up, she has forgotten the number. Th is is an example of the use of
what memory process?
(A) Short-term memory
(B) Sensory memory
(C) Automatic processing
(D) Echoic memory
(E) Iconic memory
192. After forgetting the combination to several other locks, Nate was trying to
find a way to remember the combination to the new lock he bought last
week. Th e combination is 19, 20, 9. To remember the combination, he
thinks of the year 1929. His method to remember this is an example of:
(A) Elaborate rehearsal
(B) Maintenance rehearsal
(C) Short-term memory
(D) Chunking
(E) Decoding
193. Th e process of encoding information from short-term memory to long term
memory is most efficient when it:
(A) Has a procedural manner
(B) Involves some kind of association
(C) Uses repetition
(D) Does not use repetition
(E) Uses semantic memory
194. Maintenance rehearsal is to elaborate rehearsal as:
(A) Long-term memory is to short-term memory
(B) Sensory memory is to long-term memory
(C) Short-term memory is to long-term memory
(D) Sensory memory is to short-term memory
(E) Automatic memory is to long-term memory
195. Which of the following is not an example of effortful encoding?
(A) Maintenance rehearsal
(B) Repetition
(C) Meaningful associations
(D) Chunking
(E) Transferring information from STM to LTM
196. Which of the following statements is correct regarding why eyewitness
testimony is not always accurate?
(A) People do not have the capacity to remember.
(B) People may be asked misleading questions.
(C) People do not have a strong recognition.
(D) People do not have a strong ability to recall past information.
(E) People lie too often.
197. What is the correct name of the memory files that contain related
information about a specific topic or category?
(A) Prototypes
(B) Nerve cells
(C) Nodes
(D) Networks
(E) Schemas
198. One of the earliest psychologists to study memory and forgetting was
Herman Ebbinghaus, who used himself as a subject to test his own recall
of a list of nonsense syllables, previously learned through rehearsal. From
his work he came up with the concept of a forgetting curve. Th is suggests:
(A) Remembering nonsense syllables can be encoded faster than
meaningful information.
(B) Old information will interfere with new information being encoded
into LTM.
(C) New information will interfere with old information already stored in
(D) Recall of meaningless information drops very soon after initial
learning and then levels off .
(E) Recall of meaningless information cannot be retrieved more than
three hours after encoding
199. Maya is currently enrolled in an Italian class at her local college. While on
spring break, Maya travels to Italy. She is excited to practice her new skills,
but when she gets there she is having trouble. Every time she tries to speak
Italian, Spanish words she learned in high school come out. Th is is an
example of:
(A) Retroactive interference
(B) Proactive interference
(C) Retrograde amnesia
(D) Anterograde amnesia
(E) Dissociative interference
200. Retrograde amnesia can best be defined as:
(A) Memory loss for events that occur after the time of the incident
(B) Memory loss that occurs from childbirth
(C) Memory loss for events that have occurred before the time of the
(D) Memory loss without any specific cause
(E) Memory loss for events that have occurred before and after the
201. Jayden consciously pushes the due date for his term project out of
his mind, so much so that on the day it is due, Jayden must take an
incomplete from his teacher. Th is is an example of:
(A) Repression
(B) Aggression
(C) Amnesia
(D) Forgetting
(E) Suppression
202. After his car accident, Paul cannot make any new memories. In fact, to
remember his daily activities Paul must write everything down. Th is is
known as:
(A) Retrograde amnesia
(B) Anterograde amnesia
(C) Proactive interference
(D) Retroactive interference
(E) Dissociative amnesia
203. The method of loci includes which of the following three steps?
(A) Create visual places, memorize those places, create vivid imagery
(B) Create vivid associations, memorize visual sequences, put associations
into places
(C) Memorize visual sequence of places, create vivid associations, put
associations into selected places
(D) Memorize selected places, create vivid imagery, memorize vivid
(E) Create vivid associations, memorize associations, put associations into
204. Th e ability to transfer information about words, facts, and events
(declarative information) from STM to LTM depends on activity in which
part of the brain?
(A) Hypothalamus
(B) Th alamus
(C) Amygdala
(D) Hippocampus
(E) Medulla
205. Talking to yourself over and over again, repeating information silently or
out loud, is called:
(A) Elaborate rehearsal
(B) Rote rehearsal
(C) Procedural memory
(D) Declarative memory
(E) Semantic memory
206. Subjects in an experiment learned a sequence of letters (PSQ). Th en they
were given a three-digit number (167) and asked to count backwards by
threes: 167, 164, 161, and so on, for 18 seconds. At the end they were
asked to recall the three letters. Th e subjects showed a rapid decline in their
ability to remember the letters. Th is phenomenon is known as:
(A) Proactive interference
(B) Retroactive interference
(C) Decay theory
(D) Forgetting curve
(E) Episodic interference
207. Which of the following exemplifies retrograde interference?
(A) Ella failed her French test because she was confusing it with Spanish
words she studied last year.
(B) Ava, a medical student, failed her test on the bones in the hand
because she studied for the bones in the foot after studying the hand.
(C) Isabella can no longer form new memories after her head trauma.
(D) Nya remembers only the last three items her mom put on the grocery
shopping list.
(E) Emma cannot remember her third-grade teacher’s name, but she does
remember her fourth-grade teacher’s name.
208. After studying for a test, Jack realized he remembered exactly where a
particular piece of information appeared on a page in his textbook, even
though he did not try to remember the item. Th is is an example of:
(A) Explicit memory
(B) Procedural memory
(C) Declarative memory
(D) Implicit memory
(E) Semantic memory
209. Recognition involves which of the following?
(A) Retrieving previously learned information without the presence of
any cues
(B) Using the available cues to identify information that has already been
(C) Filling in a specific amount of information without the use of any
newly learned cues
(D) Using available cues to create an entirely new response
(E) Encoding new information to replace previously learned information
210. Corey sits at his kitchen table to think about what he needs to buy at the
grocery store. He is using his ability to:
(A) Recognize
(B) Recite
(C) Memorize
(D) Recall
(E) Initiate
211. After making a mess of the playroom, Mason visualizes where each toy
should be placed in the room. He is using:
(A) Method of loci
(B) Peg method
(C) Visualization
(D) Elaborate rehearsal
(E) Procedural memory
212. Based on Herman Ebbinghaus’s forgetting curve research using nonsense
syllables, unfamiliar information is:
(A) Forgotten within the first eight hours
(B) Forgotten within the first hour
(C) Forgotten within the first day
(D) Forgotten within the first two days
(E) Forgotten within the first week
213. Th e forgetting curve measures which of the following?
(A) Th e amount of previously learned information that subjects
remember across time
(B) Th e amount of new information that can remain in the short-term
(C) Memory that cannot be consciously remembered over time
(D) Th e amount of information children can retain over age five
(E) Th e amount of information one can memorize in any given day
214. Recognition is to recall as:
(A) Fill-in is to multiple choice
(B) Fill-in is to essay
(C) Multiple choice is to fill-in
(D) Multiple choice is to essay
(E) Multiple choice is to matching
215. Kimberly knows she did something embarrassing at her friend’s birthday
party many years before, but she cannot remember what it was. Th is is an
example of:
(A) Repression
(B) Amnesia
(C) Forgetting curve
(D) Implicit memory
(E) Interference
216. Mental age can best be defined as:
(A) A method of estimating a child’s intellectual ability by comparing the
child’s score on intelligence tests and his or her age
(B) A method of estimating a child’s intellectual ability based on raw
scores on intelligence tests
(C) Comparing a child’s actual age with his or her computed age
(D) Basing a child’s age level on his or her scores on a standardized test
(E) Charting a child’s age based on the level of correct responses on an
intelligence test
217. When an intelligence test measures what it is supposed to, the test is
considered to be:
(A) Reliable
(B) Valid
(C) Accurate
(D) Standardized
(E) Comparative
218. Which of the following psychologists believed that intelligence was a
collection of mental abilities?
(A) Wechsler
(B) Broca
(C) Binet
(D) Terman
(E) Galton
219. Th e extent to which traits, abilities, or IQ scores may increase or decrease
as a result of environmental factors is called:
(A) Nature-nurture question
(B) Heritability
(C) Independent variables
(D) Reaction range
(E) Ecological testing
220. If a four-year-old girl correctly answered questions on an intelligence exam
similar to a five-year-old girl, she would be said to have a mental age of
five. In this case her intelligence quotient (IQ) would be:
(A) 100
(B) 95
(C) 150
(D) 125
(E) 110
221. Which of the following psychologists added a performance scale in
an attempt to measure nonverbal skills and rule out other cultural or
educational biases?
(A) Wechsler
(B) Binet
(C) Gardner
(D) Sternberg
(E) Terman
222. Charles Spearman’s two-factor theory of intelligence referred to which of
the following?
(A) Mathematical skills and spatial intelligence
(B) Analytical problem solving and interpersonal skills
(C) Ability to perform complex mental work and mathematical or verbal
(D) Analytical problem solving and intrapersonal skills
(E) Ability to reason logically and demonstrate written language and
thinking skills
223. Robert Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence was divided into three
categories. Which three categories are correct?
(A) Practical, intrapersonal, creative
(B) Experimental, analytical, problem solving
(C) Experimental, problem solving, practical
(D) Analytical, logical, practical
(E) Analytical, problem solving, practical
224. According to Raymond Cattell, what is the major difference between
crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence?
(A) Crystallized intelligence refers to problem-solving abilities, while fluid
intelligence is the ability to absorb and retain information.
(B) Crystallized intelligence is the ability to absorb and retain
information, while fluid intelligence refers to problem-solving
(C) Crystallized intelligence is the ability to be analytical, while fluid
intelligence is the ability to read and write.
(D) Crystallized intelligence is the ability to read and write, while fluid
intelligence is the ability to be analytical.
(E) Crystallized intelligence is the ability to absorb information, while
fluid intelligence is the ability to analyze the information.
225. An architect would likely have good spatial intelligence, a gymnast or
dancer would likely have good body-kinesthetic intelligence, and a
psychologist would probably have good intrapersonal skills. Which of the
following psychologists would agree with this statement?
(A) Gardner
(B) Spearman
(C) Th urstone
(D) Guilford
(E) Terman
226. On a normal distribution of IQ test scores, with a mean of 100 and a
standard deviation of 15 points, a score of 85 places you approximately in
what percentile of the population?
(A) 16th
(B) 50th
(C) 97th
(D) 76th
(E) 24th
227. Which of the following types of tests measures the capacity of a test taker
to perform some task or role in the future?
(A) Achievement
(B) Aptitude
(C) Conventional
(D) Self-monitored
(E) Adult intelligence scale
228. A savant can best be defined as:
(A) A mentally handicapped individual
(B) A child between the ages of 8 and 12 who suffers from autism
(C) A mentally handicapped individual with exceptional ability in
mathematical calculations, memory, art, or music
(D) A male adult who suffers from delusional thoughts and erratic
(E) A social loner who has exceptional abilities in the field of science or
229. Which of the following psychologists did not suggest the existence of more
than one kind of intelligence?
(A) Gardner
(B) Sternberg
(C) Guilford
(D) Th urstone
(E) Spearman
239. In a normal distribution of IQ scores, what percentage of people has a
score between 85 and 115?
(A) 35 percent
(B) 54 percent
(C) 68.26 percent
(D) 79.32 percent
(E) 95.44 percent
240. A normal distribution is one in which:
(A) Th e majority of scores are high.
(B) Th e majority of scores are low.
(C) All scores fall in the middle range.
(D) Th e majority of scores fall in the middle range.
(E) All scores are above the mean.
241. Because it has all the features commonly associated with the concept of a
dog, a poodle is considered:
(A) An algorithm
(B) A heuristic
(C) A prototype
(D) A phoneme
(E) A concept
242. Which of the following is an example of functional fixedness?
(A) Using a blanket as a floor mat
(B) Not being able to solve a math problem because you are using the
incorrect formula
(C) Replacing oil with applesauce when baking a cake
(D) Failing to use your keys to open a package when you can’t find a pair
of scissors
(E) Picking up a tangerine and calling it an orange
243. To become a chess or checkers champion one must use:
(A) Algorithms
(B) Heuristics
(C) Concepts
(D) Prototypes
(E) Morphemes
246. On her way to London, Janet was invited into the cockpit to meet the
pilot, Alex. She was surprised to see that Alex was a woman. Th is is an
example of:
(A) Confirmation bias
(B) Convergent thinking
(C) Insight
(D) Representative heuristic
(E) Availability heuristic
247. Phonemes are best defined as:
(A) The smallest meaningful combination of sounds in a language
(B) Th e basic sounds of consonants and vowels
(C) Something that specifies the meaning of words and phrases
(D) A set of rules that specify how we combine words to form meaningful
(E) A special form of communication
248. Noam Chomsky’s language theory included the idea that:
(A) Language development occurs between the ages of three and five.
(B) Children learn language through positive and negative reinforcement.
(C) Children make the same grammatical errors as their parents.
(D) Children model language development from those around them.
(E) Children have an innate mental grammar.
249. There is evidence to support the idea that there is an inborn tendency to
absorb language. Which of the following psychologists would agree with
this statement?
(A) Chomsky
(B) Whorf
(C) Skinner
(D) Saffron
(E) Sapir
250. Which of the following statements is not supported by the Whorf-Sapir
linguistic relativity hypothesis?
(A) Th e language a person speaks determines the way a person thinks.
(B) If language lacks expression, the thought that corresponds will likely
not occur.
(C) Th ere is evidence to support that language development has inborn
(D) If language affects our ability to store information, it should affect our
thought process.
(E) To understand new vocabulary, it is easier to think about the
relationship between language and thought.
251. Suppose you consider elderly people to be infirm and mentally slow. Every
time you see elderly people in need of care or assistance, you take it as
evidence of your belief, while ignoring the many cases of healthy, active
elderly people. Th is is an example of:
(A) Representative heuristic
(B) Availability heuristic
(C) Prototype
(D) Confirmation bias
(E) Functional fixedness
252. Angie and Brad are looking to buy a new home. One criterion is a
preference for a brick house. However, they would consider changing their
minds and buying a wood house if it were located in a good school district
and reasonably priced. In this case the attractive features off set the lack of
brick exterior. Th is is an example of:
(A) Representative heuristic
(B) Compensatory model
(C) Noncompensatory model
(D) Availability heuristic
(E) Confirmation bias
253. Which of the following sentences best explains the idea of
over regularization?
(A) Yesterday I goed to the store.
(B) I ain’t going to the store.
(C) I no want to go to store.
(D) I want store.
(E) No store please.
256. Which of the following statements best illustrates the concept of framing?
(A) A PSA for breast mammograms chooses to use the statement “you
can die if you don’t,” rather than “this can save your life.”
(B) Lily assumes her doctor named Chris is a male, when in fact she is
(C) An advertiser uses divergent thinking to come up with a commercial
(D) A person remembers items on a list depending on which order they
appear in.
(E) A cigarette company puts beautiful women in its commercials.
257. Which of the following terms is an example of an innate sound program in
the brain that involves making and processing sounds that will eventually
be used to form words?
(A) Grammar
(B) Babbling
(C) Talking
(D) Sentences
(E) Morphemes
258. Rules of grammar can best be defined as:
(A) Acquiring language through four stages
(B) Phonemes and morphemes
(C) Problem solving using language
(D) Forming sentences that range from three to eight words
(E) Speaking in sentences that are stated in different ways but have the same meaning
259. Which of the following is not a good example of the ability to overcome
functional fixedness?
(A) A potato is used as a temporary gas cap.
(B) A paper clip is used to make earrings.
(C) A glass is used as a paperweight.
(D) A credit card is used as a bookmark.
(E) A math formula is used to solve a math problem
260. To develop a concept of an office, the definition theory states that one
(A) List all essential features of an office
(B) Construct an ideal office
(C) Look at the average office
(D) Visit various offices
(E) Transform a room into an office
261. Which of the following statements best describes an example of availability
(A) After speaking in front of 200 people, Tim is no longer afraid of
public speaking.
(B) Jane thinks all men will eventually cheat on her.
(C) Steven complains to his wife about work after a very bad day, but at the office party Steven’s wife sees how much he enjoys what he does.
(D) Rob claims that when he is confronted with a problem, he likes to come up with one correct solution.
(E) After meeting a celebrity, Todd now wants to become an actor and
eventually become famous.
262. Which of the following statements best defines information retrieval?
(A) Having memories of your 16th birthday party
(B) Th inking all dog owners are sensitive people
(C) Memorizing information that might be needed in an emergency
(D) Picking out the proper outfit to wear to a friend’s housewarming party
(E) Writing a term paper
263. When solving an anagram one must try every possible combination of
letters until the hidden word appears. This is an example of:
(A) A heuristic
(B) A concept
(C) A subgoal
(D) An image
(E) An algorithm
264. Which of the following terms is not an example of a problem-solving
(A) Functional fixedness
(B) Trial and error
(C) Subgoals
(D) Brainstorming
(E) Heuristics
265. This problem-solving technique involves analyzing the difference between
the current situation and the desired end, and then doing something to
reduce that difference.
(A) Subgoals
(B) Means-end analysis
(C) Brainstorming
(D) Heuristic
(E) Algorithm
266. Motivation can best be defined as:
(A) An innate biological force that produces a fixed set of behaviors
(B) Various physiological and psychological factors that cause a person to act in a particular way
(C) A biological state in which an organism lacks something essential for survival
(D) The tendency or need for a body to stay in a balanced state
(E) Environmental factors that reward, reinforce, or encourage our behavior
267. Repulsion, curiosity, pugnacity, and humility are all examples of
(A) Needs
(B) Emotions
(C) Instincts
(D) Motivations
(E) Incentives
268. If a person does not eat for a period of time, it causes a need for food. Th is
need produces a state of tension. Th e tension energizes the person to act in
some way to find food, thereby returning the body to homeostasis. This is
an example of:
(A) Intrinsic action pattern
(B) Sympathetic nervous system
(C) Extrinsic motivation
(D) Drive reduction theory
(E) Biological needs
269. A fixed action pattern is best illustrated by which of the following examples?
(A) Jackie’s need to climb mountains
(B) Marlon’s motivation to make a lot of money
(C) A baboon rising on hind feet when threatened
(D) A dog sitting by the window an hour before his owner comes home
(E) Michael’s cat purring when she hears the can opener
270. Which of the following examples best illustrates an intrinsic motivation?
(A) Running a marathon to support breast cancer
(B) Rock climbing to win first prize
(C) Graduating with honors
(D) Trying out for the high school basketball team
(E) A teacher praising a student when she raises her hand
271. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, an adolescent who is beginning
to form serious romantic relationships would be in what level?
(A) Level 1
(B) Level 2
(C) Level 3
(D) Level 4
(E) Level 5
272. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, an individual who quits his job
and moves to Africa to do philanthropic work would be in what level?
(A) Level 1
(B) Level 2
(C) Level 3
(D) Level 4
(E) Level 5
273. Which of the following statements best illustrates Maslow’s esteem needs?
(A) Moving to a safe community to raise your children
(B) Going to school to earn a master’s degree in counseling
(C) Getting married to your high school sweetheart
(D) Donating a large sum of money to charity
(E) Going to the gym three days a week to improve your health
274. Which of the following factors signals hunger in our body?
(A) High levels of glucose
(B) Stimulation of the lateral hypothalamus
(C) Stimulation of the ventromedial hypothalamus
(D) High levels of cholecystokinin
(E) Stomach contractions
275. Homeostasis is best defined as:
(A) Th e physiological need to satisfy your hunger or thirst
(B) Th e body’s tendency to maintain balance
(C) Th e arousal of the autonomic nervous system
(D) Th e release of the hormone serotonin
(E) Th e biological need for safety and security
276. If the ventromedial hypothalamus of a rat is destroyed:
(A) Th e rat will starve to death.
(B) Th e rat will only eat when it feels hungry.
(C) Th e rat will begin to feel full.
(D) Th e rat will become obese.
(E) Th e rat’s blood glucose level will remain constant.
277. Which of the following statements best defines set point?
(A) It refers to how efficiently the body breaks food down.
(B) It refers to how quickly the body turns food into energy.
(C) It controls the body’s metabolism.
(D) It plays a role in influencing appetite.
(E) It refers to a certain level of body fat that the body maintains.
278. An individual with a low metabolic rate is:
(A) More likely to have a fatter body
(B) Less likely to have a fatter body
(C) Less likely to store excess fuel
(D) More likely to eat more than someone with a high metabolic rate
(E) More likely to have an easier time losing weight
279. Which of the following is not an example of a psychological hunger factor?
(A) Social-cultural
(B) Learned associations
(C) Personality traits
(D) Peer pressure
(E) Nutrition
280. An individual’s subjective experience and feeling of being either a male or female is referred to as:
(A) Gender roles
(B) Sexual orientation
(C) Gender identity
(D) Transgender
(E) Sex categories
281. By age five, children have acquired many of the complex thoughts and
behaviors that accompany being male or female. Th is is best known as:
(A) Gender identity
(B) Gender roles
(C) Sexual identity
(D) Sexual cognition
(E) Gender cognition
282. Which of the following brain structures is most responsible for hunger and
satiety, respectively?
(A) The ventromedial hypothalamus, the lateral hypothalamus
(B) The lateral hypothalamus, the ventromedial hypothalamus
(C) The amygdala, the hippocampus
(D) The hippocampus, the amygdala
(E) The cerebellum, the lateral hypothalamus
283. Which of the following statements is the core concept of Maslow’s
hierarchy of needs?
(A) Individuals who fail to reach self-actualization feel a sense of failure.
(B) Level 1 is the need for safety and security.
(C) Men are more concerned with safety needs and women are more
concerned with esteem needs.
(D) Physiological needs must be met before an individual can attain self actualization.
(E) An individual can skip levels 1, 2, and 3 and go directly to finding
success at level 4.
284. A journalist chooses to go to Afghanistan to cover the war hoping to acquire the admiration of his peers and a promotion. Which of the following theories of motivation best explains this decision?
(A) Drive theory
(B) Incentive theory
(C) Fixed action pattern
(D) Socio-cognitive theory
(E) Motivation
285. Motivation starts with an individual’s:
(A) Emotion
(B) Arousal
(C) Need
(D) Drive
(E) Incentive
286. Which of the following sequences is correct according to the James-Lange
theory of emotion?
(A) Physiological changes, feel emotion, interpretation of emotion,
observable behavior
(B) Physiological changes, interpretation of physiological change, feel
emotion, observable behavior
(C) Feel emotion, physiological changes, interpretation of physiological
change, observable behavior
(D) Brain interpretation, physiological changes, observable behavior
(E) Interpretation of stimuli, brain interpretation, physiological changes,
observable behavior
287. What was the name of the theory on emotion that originated from the
work of Charles Darwin?
(A) Facial feedback theory
(B) Cannon-Bard theory
(C) Cognitive-appraisal theory
(D) Affective-primacy theory
(E) Two-factor theory
288. What was one major criticism of the James-Lange theory on emotion?
(A) Emotions are usually associated with one specific physiological change
in the body.
(B) Physiological changes do not vary in intensity.
(C) Different emotions are not necessarily associated with different
patterns of physiological responses.
(D) Most emotions do not need a large amount of interpretation.
(E) Cognition has no direct affect on the physiological changes in the
289. Which of the following theories on emotion assumes that our
interpretation or appraisal of a situation is the primary cause of emotion?
(A) Cannon-Bard theory
(B) Facial feedback theory
(C) James-Lange theory
(D) Schachter-Singer theory
(E) Peripheral theory
290. Which of the following statements best supports the Schachter-Singer
theory of emotion?
(A) A friend walks up to you and tells you he saw someone back into
your car and drive away—making you angry.
(B) You hear a loud noise, your heart starts to pound, and you know you
are scared.
(C) You feel sad because you are crying.
(D) You know you are happy because you have been smiling all day.
(E) Your heart is racing but you are not sure why.
291. Unlike the cognitive-appraisal theory, the affective-primacy theory states:
(A) Physiological changes in the body happen simultaneously with the
brain’s interpretation of an event.
(B) Th e brain is entirely responsible for interpretations of any emotion
one is having.
(C) Physiological changes in the body often determine the emotion one is
(D) In some situations, a person feels an emotion before having time to
interpret the situation.
(E) Sometimes a person’s interpretation of a situation is the primary
cause of an emotion.
292. Th e six universal emotions specified that inherited facial patterns of
expression are:
(A) Worried, sadness, anger, resentment, disgust, fear
(B) Happiness, sadness, anger, surprise, disgust, fear
(C) Happiness, excitement, anger, sadness, fear
(D) Confusion, happiness, sadness, anger, fear, disgust
(E) Happiness, sadness, resentment, anger, disgust, fear
293. Which of the following statements supports the results of the Ekman Friesen
(A) Between five and seven months of age, infants show fear.
(B) It is difficult to communicate with people of different cultures.
(C) People show disgust for many different reasons.
(D) Babies smile due to modeling behavior.
(E) Children exhibit emotion differently than adults do.
294. Which statement best exemplifies the Yerkes-Dodson law?
(A) Many of Leo’s friends think he is depressed due to his lack of any
facial expressions.
(B) Josh has a look of disgust on his face after smelling the rotten milk.
(C) Linda spends hours playing a challenging video game because this
activity arouses and motivates her.
(D) William’s test anxiety helps him score higher on the exam.
(E) Jacob falls asleep in his physics class after being so bored.
295. Happiness includes all of the following except:
(A) Feeling a positive emotion
(B) Being satisfied with your life
(C) Not experiencing a negative emotion
(D) Having a high-paying job
(E) Both environmental and inherited factors
296. Three weeks after winning the lottery, Tanya gave birth to Sophia. Tanya
claimed that winning the lottery was the most exciting thing to happen to
her until she gave birth to her daughter. Th is is an example of:
(A) Th e adaptation level theory
(B) Th e rules of happiness theory
(C) Th e Yerkes-Dodson law
(D) Th e psycho-revolutionary theory
(E) Th e relative deprivation theory
297. Which statement best defines display rules?
(A) Specific inherited facial patterns or expressions are universal.
(B) People innately have a tendency to show affection in public.
(C) Many cultures do not allow public displays of emotion.
(D) Specific cultural norms regulate how much emotion we express
(E) In some situations people feel an emotion before they have time to
appraise the situation.
298. An interpretation or appraisal of a situation as having a positive or negative
impact on your life resulting in a subjective feeling is called:
(A) The affective-primacy theory
(B) Th e James-Lange theory
(C) Th e Cannon-Bard theory
(D) Th e facial feedback theory
(E) Th e cognitive-appraisal theory
299. While sitting in a waiting room, a man next to you begins yelling and
acting aggressively. Your heart begins beating fast. You interpret your
environmental cues as the cause of your arousal. Which theory of emotion
would support this explanation?
(A) Th e James-Lange theory
(B) Th e Schachter-Singer theory
(C) The affective-primacy theory
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
300. Which of the following theories of emotion support the idea that emotions
and bodily responses occur simultaneously?
(A) The James-Lange theory
(B) The Schachter-Singer theory
(C) The Cannon-Bard theory
(D) The cognitive-appraisal theory
(E) The affective-primacy theory
301. Which of the following theories of emotion supports the importance of an
individual’s personal assessment of a situation?
(A) Th e cognitive-appraisal theory
(B) Th e Cannon-Bard theory
(C) Th e facial feedback theory
(D) Th e James-Lange theory
(E) Th e peripheral theory
302. “We feel sorry when we cry and afraid because we tremble.” Th is quote is
supported by which theory of emotion?
(A) Th e Cannon-Bard theory
(B) Th e James-Lange theory
(C) Th e Cannon-Lange theory
(D) Th e James-Bard theory
(E) Th e facial feedback theory
303. Larry really wants to buy his wife the diamond watch she always wanted
for her birthday, but he knows he should be more conservative with his
money. What type of conflict is he facing?
(A) Approach-approach
(B) Approach-avoidance
(C) Avoidance-avoidance
(D) Positive approach
(E) Negative approach
304. Which of the following examples best illustrates the concept of approach-approach
(A) Ariel must work at Bloomingdale’s while in college.
(B) Sabrina is forced to call the home of one of her students because he is
not doing his homework.
(C) Latoya has to choose between Princeton and Yale University.
(D) Wendy just got a promotion, but she now has to fire someone else.
(E) Randy works as a stand-up comedian, but he needs to make more money.
305. According to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, which part of the brain is vital in terms of physiological responses to emotion?
(A) The cerebellum
(B) The temporal lobe
(C) The frontal lobe
(D) The limbic system
(E) The left hemisphere
306. If we are about to jump out of an airplane for the first time, we tend to
feel extreme fear along with low levels of elation. Later, when we decide
to jump again, we experience more elation and less fear. This scenario is
supported by which theory of emotion?
(A) The James-Lange theory
(B) The affective-primacy theory
(C) The opponent-process theory
(D) The Cannon-Bard theory
(E) None of the above
307. Emotional responses develop before complex thinking occurs. Which of
the following psychologists would agree with this statement?
(A) Ekman
(B) Schachter
(C) Bard
(D) Lange
(E) Zajonc
308. Which area of the brain is extremely stimulated when an individual is
feeling sad?
(A) Hypothalamus
(B) Thalamus
(C) Temporal lobe
(D) Parietal lobe
(E) Amygdala
309. Which example best illustrates the adaptation level theory?
(A) Michelle takes her mother’s inheritance for granted.
(B) Regina has so much to do with so little free time to do it in.
(C) Natasha hired another assistant to help lessen her workload.
(D) Cathryn lost her brand-new wallet and bought a more expensive one.
(E) Alexis sold her engagement ring to send her son to college.
310. To achieve high performance on a simple task, the Yerkes-Dodson law recommends:
(A) High arousal
(B) Low arousal
(C) Medium arousal
(D) Extreme anxiety
(E) Moderate anxiety
311. Cross-sectional research differs from longitudinal research in that:
(A) Cross-sectional research studies the developmental changes of subjects
who are of different ages.
(B) Cross-sectional research studies developmental changes using the
same group of subjects over time as they grow older.
(C) Cross-sectional research is more reliable than developmental research.
(D) Cross-sectional research is too specific to the group of people being
used for research.
(E) Cross-sectional research takes too much time to gather results.
315. Research has determined that, between the ages of 6 and 12 months, all babies have acquired:
(A) Three-dimensional dreaming
(B) Th e ability to walk
(C) Th e ability to talk
(D) Depth perception
(E) Potty-training abilities
316. Motor development in babies develops in a proximodistal fashion. This is
best described as:
(A) From nearest to the center of the body to the farthest from the center
(B) From the top of the head to the bottom of the feet
(C) From the farthest from the center to the nearest to the center
(D) From the bottom of the body to the top of the body
(E) From the left of the body to the right of the body
317. Which of the following statements best defines maturation?
(A) It is directly based on social cognitive learning.
(B) It is the basis for all physiological and psychological development.
(C) It is an automatic biological development of the body and nervous system that naturally unfolds over time.
(D) It does not take place in all human beings.
(E) It is directly associated with genetic links.
319. Jean Piaget defined egocentrism as:
(A) The belief that young adults don’t listen to their parents
(B) The idea that preschool children cannot see things from another’s
point of view
(C) The understanding that young children cannot learn outside of a
structured classroom
(D) The idea that young children are selfish and grow out of it over time
(E) The belief that children cannot do more than one task at a time
320. According to Jean Piaget, what type of learning do individuals acquire
during the formal operational stage?
(A) Abstract thought
(B) Symbolism
(C) Memorization skills
(D) Visual learning
(E) Auditory learning
321. An awareness that objects continue to exist when out of sight is called:
(A) Mental images
(B) Sensory-motor
(C) Object permanence
(D) Object understanding
(E) Conservation
322. According to Jean Piaget, children understand the concept of symbolism
during which stage of development?
(A) Sensory-motor
(B) Preoperational
(C) Concrete operational
(D) Formal operational
(E) Operational
323. One major difference between assimilation and accommodation is that
(A) Is a process by which children use old methods to deal with new
(B) Is a process by which children change their thought process to meet
the needs of their world
(C) Is a process by which children gain an understanding of the world
around them
(D) Is a process by which individuals shape their lives based on learned
(E) Is a process by which individuals begin using hypothetical thinking
324. According to Lawrence Kohlberg, during the preconventional stage of
moral development children tend to:
(A) Use abstract thoughts or principles to determine their behavior
(B) Make behavioral decisions based on legal issues
(C) Understand morality based on customs or values
(D) Interpret behavior in terms of concrete consequences
(E) Define good behavior as that which pleases other people
325. During a discussion in class regarding cheating in school, a student argues,
“Cheating is wrongit is important to follow rules.” Lawrence Kohlberg
would say this student is in what stage of moral development?
(A) Preconventional
(B) Conventional
(C) Postconventional
(D) Nonconventional
(E) Advanced conventional
326. As a preschooler, Emma has developed a number of cognitive and social
skills that she will use to assume responsibility. According to Erik Erikson,
what stage of psychosocial development is Emma in?
(A) Trust versus mistrust
(B) Autonomy versus self-doubt
(C) Initiative versus guilt
(D) Industry versus inferiority
(E) Identity versus role confusion
327. When Daniel begins walking, talking, and exploring, he is bound to
get into conflict with his parents. If his parents punish his explorations,
Daniel may develop a feeling that independence is bad. According to Erik
Erikson, what stage of psychosocial development would this occur in?
(A) Identity versus role confusion
(B) Industry versus inferiority
(C) Initiative versus guilt
(D) Autonomy versus self-doubt
(E) Trust versus mistrust
328. According to Sigmund Freud, what is the correct order of the five
psychosexual stages of development?
(A) Oral, anal, phallic, early, genital
(B) Oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital
(C) Anal, phallic, latency, genital, oral
(D) Genital, oral, latency, phallic, anal
(E) Phallic, anal, oral, latency, genital
329. If individuals successfully solve their problems during each stage of life,
they will develop good social traits. If they do not, their problem-solving
skills will be hindered, causing new problems at the next stage. Which
psychologist(s) would agree with this statement?
(A) Freud
(B) Piaget
(C) Erikson
(D) A and B
(E) A and C
330. Monica is extremely neat and orderly. She cannot stand it when people
touch things on her desk. She also has a problem lending money to even
her closest friends. Freud would say she is stuck in what psychosexual
(A) Oral
(B) Anal
(C) Phallic
(D) Latency
(E) Genital
331. Jenna is extremely sarcastic. She uses this to cover up her low self-esteem.
Freud would say she is stuck in which psychosexual stage?
(A) Oral
(B) Anal
(C) Phallic
(D) Latency
(E) Genital
332. If a child believes stealing in order to save a life is OK because life is even
more important than following the law, this child would be in what stage
of moral development?
(A) Level one: preconventional
(B) Level two: conventional
(C) Level three: postconventional
(D) Level four: operational
(E) Level five: formal operational
333. Which of the following statements is a major criticism of Jean Piaget’s
work with cognitive development?
(A) Piaget failed to include clear age differences for his stages.
(B) Piaget placed too much emphasis on cognitive differences between
young children and adolescents.
(C) Piaget often overestimated the cognitive abilities of children.
(D) Piaget often underestimated the cognitive abilities of children.
(E) Piaget gave little credit to other psychologists who helped him
develop his theory.
334. Th e rooting reflex is an infant’s tendency to:
(A) Th row legs up in the air
(B) Wave arms when startled
(C) Open mouth and turn head when touched on the cheek
(D) Follow a moving object with eyes
(E) Grasp nearby objects
335. Harry Harlow’s experiment with monkeys and surrogate mothers
emphasized the importance of:
(A) Satisfying hunger
(B) Body temperature
(C) Fulfilling needs
(D) Intrinsic motivation
(E) Contact
336. When adolescents were asked about their major concerns for their future,
top answers on their lists were getting married, having friends, getting a
job, and doing well in school. Each of these concerns involves the ability to
understand abstract thought and concepts. According to Jean Piaget, what
stage of cognitive learning is this?
(A) Sensorimotor
(B) Preoperational
(C) Operational
(D) Formal operational
(E) Postoperational
337. While at her friend’s party, Angelica begins to feel self-conscious because
she assumes everyone is staring at her. According to David Elkind, what
adolescent belief is Angelica feeling?
(A) Imaginary audience
(B) Personal fable
(C) Awkwardness
(D) Insecure attachment
(E) Imaginary person
338. Which of the following examples best illustrates a personal fable?
(A) Talia feels insecure when she is making her presentation in front of
her class.
(B) Lola feels as though no one else could possibly be so much in love as
she is.
(C) Dina lies to her parents about going to her boyfriend’s birthday party.
(D) Alexa is no longer interested in her schoolwork
all she wants to do is
hang out with her friends.
(E) Joanna falls into a severe depression when her boyfriend breaks up
with her.
339. Authoritative parents can best be defined as:
(A) Parents who befriend their children and do not use discipline
(B) Parents who are less controlling and behave with a more accepting
(C) Parents who try to control the behavior of their children in
accordance with a set standard of conduct
(D) Supportive parents who discuss their rules and policies with their
(E) Parents who command obedience and teach their values with little
340. According to Erik Erikson, what is one major conflict teenagers deal
with during the identity versus role confusion stage of psychosocial
(A) Finding a more purposeful life as an adult
(B) Achieving personal satisfaction
(C) Reflecting on previous life challenges
(D) Finding intimacy by developing loving relationships
(E) Achieving generativity through family relationships
341. According to Robert Sternberg, what are the three components of love?
(A) Passion, romance, attraction
(B) Commitment, intimacy, companionship
(C) Passion, intimacy, commitment
(D) Intimacy, trust, attraction
(E) Intimacy, companionship, attraction
342. Carol Gilligan believed moral decision making is dependent primarily on
which of the following?
(A) Age
(B) Culture
(C) Religion
(D) Gender
(E) Nationality
343. Which of the following parenting styles results in the most socially
responsible adults?
(A) Authoritarian
(B) Authoritative
(C) Permissive
(D) Autocratic
(E) Sensitive
344. A failure to develop a consistent identity results in:
(A) Role confusion
(B) Inferiority
(C) Insecurity
(D) Stagnation
(E) Social isolation
345. According to Erikson, teachers, friends, and other people outside of the
home first become important in shaping attitudes of a child during what
psychosocial stage?
(A) Autonomy versus self-doubt
(B) Initiative versus guilt
(C) Industry versus inferiority
(D) Integrity versus despair
(E) Trust versus mistrust
346. Daniel Levinson studied:
(A) Child development
(B) Adolescent behavior
(C) Death and dying
(D) Male adult psychosocial stages
(E) Female adult psychosocial stages
347. According to Erikson, a child who is learning the importance of academic
success in school based on receiving a report card is in what psychosocial stage?
(A) Industry versus inferiority
(B) Generativity versus stagnation
(C) Identity versus role confusion
(D) Initiative versus guilt
(E) Integrity versus despair
348. I am in my early fifties. If I do not reach out to others, especially young
people, Erik Erikson says I will experience:
(A) Shame
(B) Depression
(C) Isolation
(D) Stagnation
(E) Despair
349. According to Lawrence Kohlberg, behavior directed by self-accepted moral
principles is an example of what stage of moral development?
(A) Preconventional
(B) Conventional
(C) Postconventional
(D) Nonconventional
(E) Unconventional
350. According to Erik Erikson, as a young adult you are most interested in
(A) Initiative
(B) Integrity
(C) Generativity
(D) Trust
(E) Intimacy
351. Which group of stages from Erikson, Kohlberg, and Levinson identify the
same phase of life?
(A) Identity, conventional, age 50 crisis
(B) Generativity, postconventional, age 50 crisis
(C) Generativity, preconventional, midlife transition
(D) Intimacy, preconventional, midlife transition
(E) Initiative, conventional, age 30 crisis
352. According to Freud adolescents are in what psychosexual stage?
(A) Oral
(B) Anal
(C) Phallic
(D) Latency
(E) Genital
353. Which three psychologists focused their work on adolescent development?
(A) Freud, Kohlberg, Gilligan
(B) Gilligan, Erikson, Havighurst
(C) Havighurst, Elkind, Marcia
(D) Marcia, Levinson, Elkind
(E) Elkind, Freud, Piaget
354. As children begin their elementary school years, they enter Erikson’s
stage of:
(A) Trust versus mistrust
(B) Autonomy versus doubt
(C) Initiative versus guilt
(D) Industry versus inferiority
(E) Identity versus role confusion
355. Robert Havighurst believed adolescents must:
(A) Complete a series of tasks
(B) Fall in love
(C) Graduate college
(D) Get along with their parents
(E) Find a summer job
356. Claire just celebrated her 90th birthday with her family and close friends.
According to Erik Erikson, she has probably achieved:
(A) Isolation
(B) Integrity
(C) Despair
(D) Autonomy
(E) Stagnation
357. Which is the correct order of the five stages of dealing with death or loss?
(A) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
(B) Anger, denial, bargaining, depression, acceptance
(C) Bargaining, anger, denial, depression, acceptance
(D) Depression, bargaining, anger, denial, acceptance
(E) Depression, anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance
358. Which of the following psychologists formulated a stage theory addressing
our encounters with grief?
(A) Sigmund Freud
(B) Erik Erikson
(C) Elisabeth Kubler-Ross
(D) Carol Gilligan
(E) Lawrence Kohlberg
359. In late adulthood, individuals experience a decrease in which of the
(A) Sexual desire
(B) Cognitive abilities
(C) Creativity
(D) Intellect
(E) Compassion for others
360. Ethel, who is 80 years old, lost her husband last year, and her children
hardly ever come to visit. She looks back on her life with a lot of regret.
According to Erik Erikson she is experiencing:
(A) Stagnation
(B) Depression
(C) Regression
(D) Despair
(E) Isolation
361. Freud’s psychodynamic theory of personality emphasizes:
(A) The importance of early childhood experiences
(B) The importance of sibling rivalries
(C) The role genetics plays in personality development
(D) The nature-nurture debate
(E) The conscious thought process only
362. To explain why we do things that we cannot explain, Freud used the
concept of:
(A) Conscious forces
(B) Subconscious tendencies
(C) Unconscious motivation
(D) Preconscious motivation
(E) Conscious association
363. Th e Freudian technique in which clients are encouraged to talk about any
thoughts that enter their mind to help with uncensored talk is called:
(A) Unconscious motivation
(B) Free association
(C) Free analysis
(D) Freudian interpretation
(E) Psychodynamic theory
364. Freud believed the mental process must have a source of energy called:
(A) Ego
(B) Superego
(C) Id
(D) Conscious
(E) Unconscious
365. As children learn they must follow rules and regulations in satisfying their
wishes, they develop:
(A) A superego
(B) An id
(C) An ego
(D) A preconscious
(E) An unconscious
366. As infants discover that parents put restrictions on satisfying their wishes,
infants learn to control their wishes. According to Freud they do this
through the development of:
(A) An id
(B) A superego
(C) An ego
(D) A conscious
(E) A subconscious
367. Which of the following examples best illustrates the pleasure principle?
(A) A student takes pleasure in reporting a fellow classmate for cheating.
(B) A new mother breastfeeds her infant.
(C) A corporate executive takes a vacation after working extremely hard
the past month.
(D) A spoiled child acts out by throwing his toys at the wall when he
doesn’t get the Christmas gift he wanted.
(E) A mother and father fight about whether their son should have the
privilege of staying out late to attend a party.
368. A defense mechanism is best defined by Freud as:
(A) A systematic process used to avoid confrontation
(B) A thought process that operates at an unconscious level to help an
individual reduce anxiety
(C) Th e creation of acceptable excuses for unacceptable behavior
(D) Th e transfer of feelings from the unconscious to the conscious
(E) A thought process by which forbidden desires are acknowledged
369. Todd has had a crush on Donna for the past year, but he does not have
the courage to ask her out. He is frustrated with himself and begins taking
a kickboxing class at his local gym. Th is scenario best illustrates which
defense mechanism?
(A) Displacement
(B) Projection
(C) Reaction formation
(D) Rationalization
(E) Sublimation
370. Which of the following statements best illustrates rationalization?
(A) Jay fails his math class and blames it on his teacher not liking him.
(B) After fighting with her best friend, Annie starts an argument with her
(C) Janie feels so guilty about cheating, she confesses to her teacher.
(D) Conner is a heavy smoker but disregards all the evidence that says
smoking can kill you.
(E) Jarred doesn’t want to believe that his pastor could have molested his
younger brother.
371. Tom is still in love with his girlfriend, who broke up with him last week,
but he acts as if he doesn’t care and is actually happy to be rid of her. Th is
is an example of which of the following defense mechanisms?
(A) Regression
(B) Projection
(C) Sublimation
(D) Displacement
(E) Reaction formation
372. According to Freud, what is the preconscious?
(A) Another name for conscious
(B) Th e opposing force for the unconscious
(C) Th e part of the mind that is right below the conscious surface
(D) Th e part of the mind that works directly with the id
(E) Th e part of the unconscious that does not hold repressed desires
373. According to Freud, in what stage of psychosexual development does the
Oedipus complex take place?
(A) Oral
(B) Anal
(C) Latency
(D) Phallic
(E) Genital
374. The female version of the Oedipus complex is called
(A) Victoria complex
(B) Isabella complex
(C) Pleasure complex
(D) Electra complex
(E) Octavia complex
375. According to Freud’s psychosexual theory of development, a man’s
repression of sexual urges is a result of which of the following?
(A) Fixation in the latency stage
(B) Fixation in the oral stage
(C) Fixation in the anal stage
(D) Fixation in the genital stage
(E) Fixation in the phallic stage
376. One major criticism of Freudian psychoanalytic theory is that it:
(A) Focuses too much attention on sexual conflicts and fixations
(B) Assumes all behaviors are learned during childhood
(C) Is too pessimistic about the future of humanity
(D) Focuses too much attention on the id and not enough on the ego
(E) Gives too much power to conscious behavior
377. A three-year-old boy is rejecting his father and only wants to be around his
mother. Freud would theorize the child is going through which phase?
(A) Electra complex
(B) Pleasure principle
(C) Oedipus complex
(D) Reality principle
(E) Latency period
378. Grace realizes she got back an extra hundred dollars from the bank teller.
She has to decide whether or not she should return to the bank and inform
the bank teller of the mistake. Grace is currently in conflict between her:
(A) Conscious and unconscious
(B) Id and superego
(C) Ego and superego
(D) Preconscious and unconscious
(E) Id and conscious
379. A fixation in the oral stage will include all of the following behaviors
(A) Overeating
(B) Low self-esteem
(C) Sarcasm
(D) Self-consciousness
(E) Aggressiveness
380. James has been divorced twice. Now anytime he even goes out on a date
with women, they tell him he is very misogynistic. James could be fixated
in what psychosexual stage of development?
(A) Oral
(B) Anal
(C) Phallic
(D) Latency
(E) Genital
381. The “anima,” “animus,” “persona,” and “shadow” are all:
(A) Archetypes in the collective unconscious according to Carl Jung
(B) Parts of the drive for superiority according to Alfred Adler
(C) Components of Karen Horney’s beliefs on neurotic needs
(D) Terms used by Sigmund Freud to explain the Oedipus complex
(E) Roles encouraged by neo-Freudians
382. Which theory of personality emphasizes the value and importance of
unconditional positive regard with regard to relationships?
(A) Psychoanalytic psychology
(B) Humanistic psychology
(C) Cognitive psychology
(D) Developmental psychology
(E) Behavioral psychology
383. The “Big Five” personality characteristics are:
(A) Emotionality, extroversion, openness, neuroticism, and agreeableness
(B) Anxiety, extroversion, agreeableness, neuroticism, and sociability
(C) Outgoing, conscientiousness, extroversion, agreeableness, and
(D) Openness, conscientiousness, extroversion, agreeableness, and
(E) Extroversion, neuroticism, anxiety, agreeableness, and openness
384. Research shows that individuals with a type A personality are more
prone to:
(A) Extroversion
(B) Cardiac health problems
(C) Poverty
(D) Sexual dysfunction
(E) Psychoticism
385. Which of the following statements is a good example of a Jungian
(A) Owen, who is 37, still wants to please his domineering mother.
(B) Erica does not want anyone to know she uses food stamps.
(C) George runs for class president because he wants his classmates to
believe he is a confi dent person.
(D) Tanya consciously strives to become the best golf player on her team.
(E) Joan, who is haunted by her memories of child abuse, seeks help by
going to a psychotherapist.
386. Which of the following tests is an example of a projective test, consisting
of a set of ambiguous pictures about which people are asked to tell a story?
(A) MMPI-2
(B) Rorschach
387. Which of the following terms does not describe the assumption behind
Carl Rogers’s self theory?
(A) Unconditional positive regard
(B) Congruency
(C) Self-actualization
(D) Empathic understanding
(E) Extraversion
388. According to Carl Rogers, a client’s personality is determined by
measuring the difference between:
(A) Introversion and extraversion
(B) Ideal self and real self
(C) Self-efficacy and self-esteem
(D) Persona and shadow
(E) Self-actualization and esteem needs
389. According to Albert Bandura, self-efficacy is best described as:
(A) Th e way in which an individual views his or her self-worth
(B) A voluntary decision to postpone a personal reward until a specific
task is completed
(C) An individual’s personal beliefs regarding how capable he or she is in
controlling events and completing tasks
(D) An individual’s social, political, and cultural views on issues that
influence his or her learning potential
(E) An individual’s beliefs about how much control he or she has over
choices he or she has and decisions he or she makes
390. Ted believes that when he graduates depends primarily on his motivation
and determination. Th is thought process is called:
(A) Self-efficacy
(B) Self-actualization
(C) Social cognition
(D) Internal locus of control
(E) External locus of control
391. Raymond Cattell claimed that 35 basic traits could describe all differences
among personalities. He called these traits.
(A) External
(B) Internal
(C) Social
(D) Source
(E) Diverse
392. Th e trait theory can best be defined as:
(A) Th e analysis of how much personality or behavioral traits are
influenced by genetics
(B) Th e analysis of the structure of personality by classifying similarities
and differences in personality characteristics
(C) A factor analysis that studies common personality characteristics
(D) Th e organization of personality traits using specifi c categories to
describe all characteristics
(E) Grouping individual behaviors based on interactions between
particular personality characteristics
393. A true-false self-report questionnaire that describes a wide range of normal
and abnormal behaviors is called:
(A) Th ematic Apperception Test
(B) Validity Test
(C) Rorschach Test
(D) Objective Personality Test
(E) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
394. Complete the following statement: Th e theory
minimized the role of the unconscious.
(A) Humanistic
(B) Trait
(C) Psychoanalytic
(D) Behaviorist
(E) Functionalist
395. According to Carl Jung, the collective unconscious consists of:
(A) Inherent tendencies to help people develop their true potential
(B) Mental processes of which we are unaware but which automatically
influence our thought patterns
(C) Ancient memories and symbols that are passed down from birth and
shared by all people in all cultures
(D) Forces that influence our behavior
(E) Biological drives shared by all people in all cultures
396. Alfred Adler proposed that humans are motivated by:
(A) Conscious drives
(B) Neurotic needs
(C) Empathic understanding
(D) Social urges
(E) Intrinsic motivation
397. Which of the following neo-Freudians believed that the major influence on
personality development is found in the child-parent social interaction?
(A) Adler
(B) Horney
(C) Jung
(D) Rogers
(E) Bandura
398. According to Alfred Adler, fictional finalism is best defined as:
(A) Th e belief that people live by many ideals that have no relation to
(B) Th e desire people have to do good for their community
(C) An individual’s need to be in complete control over his or her life
(D) Th e desire for power that all human beings innately struggle with
(E) Th e social urges all people are motivated by and the unique way
individuals deal with those urges
399. Neo-Freudians agree with Freud on all of the following basic ideas except:
(A) Importance of the unconscious
(B) The division of the mind
(C) The use of defense mechanisms
(D) The importance of sexual drives and conflicts
(E) The protection of the ego
400. Th e importance of our capacity for personal growth, development of our
potential, and freedom to choose our destiny is the emphasis of which
psychological theory?
(A) Psychoanalytic psychology
(B) Existentialism
(C) Behaviorism
(D) Humanism
(E) Cognitive psychology
401. Stress is best defined as:
(A) A subjective evaluation of a situation that we believe to be
(B) A threatening feeling that comes when we interpret a situation as
more than our psychological or physiological resources can handle
(C) A potentially harmful situation from which we can potentially sustain
some harm or damage
(D) A situation that we see as a challenge to our psyche
(E) A measure of how much we can handle a potentially threatening
402. Lamar was asked to give blood. He has a terrible fear of doing so. He
automatically thinks this will have negative effects on his well-being. Th is
is an example of what type of appraisal?
(A) Harm/loss
(B) Challenge
(C) Threat
(D) Stress
(E) Negative
403. Which of the following statements is true regarding the fight-flight
(A) It can be triggered by physical stimuli that threaten our survival.
(B) It directs a great source of energy from the brain to the muscles.
(C) It calms the body down after the response to a stress stimuli has
(D) It stimulates the thyroid gland to release a stress hormone called
(E) It automatically reduces physiological stress triggers by slowing down
the heart rate.
404. Physical symptoms such as headaches, muscle pain, and stomach problems
brought on by psychological factors like worry and tension are called:
(A) Resistance symptoms
(B) Prolonged stress symptoms
(C) Psychological symptoms
(D) Psychosomatic symptoms
(E) Appraisal symptoms
405. Stress appraisal stimulates which part of the brain?
(A) Thalamus
(B) Hypothalamus
(C) Amygdala
(D) Cerebrum
(E) Medulla
406. When the adrenal medulla is activated by the sympathetic nervous system, is secreted.
(A) Epinephrine
(B) Dopamine
(C) Serotonin
(D) Acetylcholine
(E) Glycogen
407. What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?
(A) Alarm, fight, relaxation
(B) Alarm, control, exhaustion
(C) Resistance, alarm, homeostasis
(D) Alarm, resistance, exhaustion
(E) Resistance, exhaustion, relaxation
408. Which of the following examples best illustrates frustration?
(A) A basketball coach loses his temper when his team loses a game they
should have won.
(B) Two wolves fight to become the leader of the pack.
(C) A child starts crying when his mother says good-bye to him in
(D) A spider eats a fl y.
(E) A farmer kills a chicken to eat for dinner.
409. When we balance the demands of a potentially stressful situation with our
ability to meet these demands, it is called:
(A) Secondary appraisal
(B) Threat appraisal
(C) Harm/loss appraisal
(D) Challenge appraisal
(E) Primary appraisal
410. Eva’s professor keeps telling her how the tests and quizzes she takes in his
class are opportunities to demonstrate her understanding of the material.
Eva’s professor is attempting to elicit what kind of appraisal?
(A) Harm/loss
(B) Threat
(C) Challenge
(D) Primary
(E) Secondary
411. What effect do harm/loss appraisals have that challenge appraisals do not
(A) Lower physiological arousal
(B) Higher levels of negative emotions
(C) More psychological stimulation
(D) A triggering of physiological arousal
(E) Increased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system
412. In what stage of the general adaptation syndrome is there a breakdown to
internal organs and a weakening of the immune system?
(A) Alarm
(B) Resistance
(C) Exhaustion
(D) Relaxation
(E) Negative
413. Just before her solo at her chorus concert, Charlene’s heart begins to race
and her face becomes flushed. According to Hans Selye, Charlene is in
what stage of stress?
(A) Alarm
(B) Resistance
(C) Exhaustion
(D) Primary
(E) Psychosomatic
414. Which of the following is not an example of a major source of stress?
(A) Hassles
(B) Change
(C) Pressure
(D) Frustration
(E) Fear
415. Richard Lazarus’s theory on stress emphasizes which of the following as the
first step in experiencing stress?
(A) Fear
(B) Threat
(C) Flight
(D) Appraisal
(E) Threat
416. A mental disorder is generally defined as:
(A) Not knowing the difference between right and wrong
(B) A prolonged problem that interferes with an individual’s ability to cope in society
(C) An anxiety disorder with dangers of hurting oneself
(D) A long-term problem that can only be cured with medication
(E) A long-term problem that cannot be treated with medication
417. Lee is unable to tell the difference between right and wrong in any aspect
of his life. Th is statement is describing which type of abnormal behavior?
(A) Depression
(B) Maladaptive
(C) Insanity
(D) Anxiety
(E) Psychotic
418. Th e learning perspective states that the main cause of mental disorders is:
(A) Reinforcement of maladaptive behavior learned through experience
(B) Irrational thought processes
(C) Internal conflict from one’s childhood
(D) Low self-esteem
(E) Chemical imbalance in the brain
419. DSM-IV was designed to help with which of the following?
(A) Identifying psychological disorders
(B) Identifying the causes of psychological disorders
(C) Classifying psychological disorders
(D) Listing venues where individuals can diagnose their disorder
(E) Distinguishing between sanity and insanity
420. A somatoform disorder can best be defined as:
(A) Disorder in which hallucinations occur often
(B) Disorder in which an individual experiences extreme anxiety
(C) Disorder in which symptoms are completely made up by the
(D) Disorder in which symptoms are produced by psychological factors
(E) Disorder in which an individual has delusional thoughts
421. Which of the following examples best illustrates a person with obsessive compulsive
disorder (OCD)?
(A) Steven hyperventilates whenever he is in an elevator.
(B) Shelly complains constantly about feeling sick and goes to many
(C) Bari is extremely anxious and panics every time she gets on an
(D) Blake wanders around town in a daze, not sure how she got there.
(E) Adam must lock his door 10 times before he leaves for work every
422. A soldier experiences sudden blindness after returning from battle. He
would most likely be diagnosed with which of the following disorders?
(A) Conversion disorder
(B) Dissociative disorder
(C) Bipolar disorder
(D) Hypochondriac
(E) A phobic disorder
423. Which of the following disorders is not an anxiety disorder?
(A) Phobias
(B) Panic
(C) Hypochondriasis
(D) Obsessive-compulsive
(E) Post-traumatic stress
424. Th is disorder is characterized by irritability, difficulty concentrating, and
inability to control one’s worry.
(A) Phobias
(B) Generalized anxiety
(C) Obsessive-compulsive
(D) Bipolar
(E) Hypochondriasis
425. Fran was sitting on the bus when she suddenly felt overwhelmed. Her
heart started racing, her legs began to feel weak, and her body trembled.
She thought she was losing her mind. Fran’s symptoms indicate she has:
(A) Bipolar disorder
(B) Panic disorder
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
(E) Personality disorder
426. Agoraphobia is the fear of:
(A) Heights
(B) Spiders
(C) Th e dark
(D) Being in places with no escape
(E) Speaking in public
427. Which of the following symptoms is not a symptom of obsessive compulsive
(A) Irrational thoughts
(B) Impulsive behavior
(C) Uncontrollable images
(D) Severe depression
(E) Ritualized behavior
428. Individuals who have reported paralysis of a limb, blindness, or seizures
with no physical or neurological damage are most likely suffering from:
(A) A conversion disorder
(B) A panic disorder
(C) Post-traumatic stress disorder
(D) Hypochondriasis
(E) Bipolar disorder
429. Axis II of the DSM-IV refers to which of the following?
(A) Mood disorders
(B) Personality disorders
(C) Anxiety disorders
(D) Schizophrenia
(E) General medical conditions
430. Which of the following disorders has psychological stressors translating
into physical symptoms?
(A) Anxiety
(B) Adjustment
(C) Affective
(D) Somatoform
(E) Psychotic
431. Data suggests that the most common mental disorder is:
(A) Substance abuse
(B) Mood disorders
(C) Personality disorders
(D) Somatoform disorders
(E) Psychosexual disorders
432. Which of the following treatments is most often used to help clients who
suffer from obsessive-compulsive disorder?
(A) Avoidance therapy
(B) Psychoanalysis
(C) Exposure therapy
(D) Biochemical treatment
(E) Cognitive therapy
433. A list of criteria and symptoms about the onset, severity, and duration of
mental disorders is located in which axis of the DSM-IV?
(A) Axis I
(B) Axis II
(C) Axis III
(D) Axis IV
(E) Axis V
434. Th e theory that states that mental disorders develop when a biological
predisposition to the disorder is set off by stressful circumstances is:
(A) Cognitive-behavioral model
(B) Psychoanalytic model
(C) Diathesis-stress model
(D) Biochemical model
(E) Developmental model
435. Gender-identity disorders involve:
(A) Th e use of unconventional sexual tendencies
(B) Th e desire to dress like individuals of the opposite sex
(C) Homosexual tendencies
(D) Th e rejection of one’s biological gender
(E) Th e rejection of gender-related stereotypes
436. Which of the following disorders does not fall under a mood disorder?
(A) Dysthymic disorder
(B) Bipolar disorder
(C) Major depression
(D) Cyclothymic disorder
(E) Schizophrenia
437. Lilly is now 35 years old. She just started therapy because she feels “down
in the dumps.” While in therapy she realizes she has felt this way most of
her life. She is most likely suffering from:
(A) Major depression
(B) Bipolar disorder
(C) Dysthymic disorder
(D) Generalized anxiety disorder
(E) Antisocial personality disorder
438. Antidepressant drugs work mainly because they raise the level of a single
neurotransmitter called:
(A) Dopamine
(B) Epinephrine
(C) Norepinephrine
(D) Serotonin
(E) Glycogen
439. Which of the following characteristics in not a symptom of a personality
(A) Major depression
(B) Inflexibility
(C) Maladaptive traits
(D) Impaired functioning
(E) Great social and personal distress
440. Jeff has total disregard for the rights or properties of others. He steals all
the time from just about anyone. He randomly harasses people. He has
consistently destroyed his neighbor’s property. Last month he was arrested
for kidnapping. While in jail he continues to lie and have little remorse for
his actions. Jeff is suffering from what mental disorder?
(A) Major depression
(B) Psychopath
(C) Schizoid personality disorder
(D) Dependent personality disorder
(E) Paranoid personality disorder
441. Which of the following symptoms best illustrates schizoid personality disorder?
(A) Disregard for the rights of others, feeling little to no remorse for bad
(B) Submissive behavior, excessive need to be taken care of
(C) Acute discomfort in close relationships, distorted thinking, and eccentric behavior
(D) Intense desire to be orderly, having total control over others
(E) Excessively emotional and delusional, accompanied by a strong need for attention
442. Which of the following characterizes paranoid personality disorder?
(A) Unstable moods
(B) Lack of social relationships
(C) Lack of conscience
(D) Inaccurate sense of self-worth
(E) Extreme suspiciousness and mistrust of other people
443. Early childhood sexual or physical abuse is a common feature among
people suffering from:
(A) Somatoform disorder
(B) Dissociative identity disorder
(C) Bipolar disorder
(D) Major depression
(E) Schizophrenia
444. From the time he was a young child, Scott has had no problem lying to
authority figures. As an adult he considers himself good with the ladies. He
has little remorse for his maladaptive behavior. Scott would most likely be
diagnosed with:
(A) Antisocial personality disorder
(B) Paranoid personality disorder
(C) Narcissistic personality disorder
(D) Schizoid personality disorder
(E) Schizophrenia
445. Pricilla spent the last four weeks in bed. Without telling her friends or
family she bought a three-thousand-dollar plane ticket to Europe. She took
most of her savings with her to go on a major shopping spree when she
gets there. Pricilla is most likely suffering from:
(A) Narcissistic personality disorder
(B) Major depression
(C) Schizoid personality disorder
(D) Bipolar disorder
(E) Dysthymic disorder
446. Excessive dopamine is to as too little dopamine is to .
(A) Parkinson’s disease, schizophrenia
(B) Schizophrenia, Parkinson’s disease
(C) Antisocial personality disorder, schizoid personality disorder
(D) Depression, schizophrenia
(E) Schizophrenia, depression
447. All of the following are symptoms of schizophrenia except:
(A) Delusions
(B) Hallucinations
(C) Disorganized speech
(D) Manic behavior
(E) Decreased emotional expression
448. Robert has been immobile for the past two years. In fact, he keeps both his
arms up in the air for two-hour periods throughout the day. Robert has
been diagnosed with:
(A) Somatoform disorder
(B) Paranoid schizophrenia
(C) Conversion disorder
(D) Disorganized schizophrenia
(E) Catatonic schizophrenia
449. Which of the following is an example of a positive symptom of
(A) Hallucinations
(B) Dulled emotions
(C) Little inclination to speak
(D) Loss of normal functions
(E) Intellectual impairment
450. Research has shown that individuals with schizophrenia reportedly have a:
(A) Larger hypothalamus
(B) Smaller hypothalamus
(C) Larger thalamus
(D) Smaller thalamus
(E) Smaller medulla
451. Khloe walked into a police station looking disheveled and confused. She
could not remember her name, didn’t recall where she came from, and
couldn’t remember anything about her past. Khloe has experienced:
(A) Dissociative amnesia
(B) Dissociative fugue
(C) Dissociative identity disorder
(D) Schizophrenia
(E) Antisocial personality disorder
452. Researchers have determined that there is a genetic marker in the
development of schizophrenia. To test this theory, researchers used which
of the following groups?
(A) Fraternal twins
(B) Siblings
(C) Parents and children
(D) Unrelated individuals
(E) Identical twins
453. Research suggests there is a direct correlation between the presence of
major depression and:
(A) Moderate levels of dopamine
(B) Decreased levels of serotonin
(C) Increased levels of endorphins
(D) Enlarged hypothalamus
(E) Enlarged parietal lobe
454. Autism is considered to be a:
(A) Developmental disorder
(B) Mood disorder
(C) Learning disability
(D) Personality disorder
(E) Dissociative disorder
455. Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by:
(A) An unstable self-image
(B) Feelings of inadequacy
(C) Social isolation
(D) Inflated sense of self
(E) Compulsive tendencies
456. Th e analysis of a client’s past experiences and suggestions for ways the
client can overcome his or her problems that stem from these experiences
is the basis for which type of therapy?
(A) Cognitive therapy
(B) Behavioral therapy
(C) Psychoanalytic therapy
(D) Developmental therapy
(E) Social-cognitive therapy
457. Which of the following examples best illustrates insight therapy?
(A) A client takes various psychoactive drugs to treat a mental disorder.
(B) A therapist and client work together with the goal of identifying the
problem and reaching a possible solution.
(C) Th e therapist and client discuss key traumatic issues faced by the
client in his or her childhood.
(D) Th is therapy involves combining various techniques from many
different therapeutic approaches.
(E) Th e therapist focuses on the thoughts of the unconscious and brings
these thoughts to the surface through dream analysis.
458. Which of the following is one major difference between a clinical
psychologist and a psychiatrist?
(A) A psychiatrist uses biomedical treatment.
(B) A psychiatrist uses an eclectic approach.
(C) A psychiatrist cannot counsel clients.
(D) A psychiatrist recognizes the importance of group therapy.
(E) A psychiatrist treats clients in hospitals.
459. Which of the following disorders has, in some circumstances, been treated with electroconvulsive therapy?
(A) Paranoid personality disorder
(B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Major depression
(E) Dissociative identity disorder
460. Joy’s therapist is trying to encourage her to take charge of the therapy
session. The therapist uses active listening while Joy discusses her feelings.
Which therapy is most likely being described?
(A) Psychodynamic therapy
(B) Rational emotive therapy
(C) Existential therapy
(D) Cognitive-behavioral therapy
(E) Client-centered therapy
461. Th e antidepressant drug Prozac does which of the following?
(A) Blocks the reuptake of serotonin
(B) Blocks the reuptake of dopamine
(C) Levels the amount of epinephrine
(D) Deceases the amount of adrenaline in the blood stream
(E) Decreases the level of acetylcholine in the blood stream
462. Albert Ellis devised a therapy that can be very confrontational. Th e client
must face the irrationality of his or her belief system. What is the name of
this form of therapy?
(A) Cognitive-behavioral therapy
(B) Gestalt therapy
(C) Rational emotive therapy
(D) Insight therapy
(E) Social-cognitive therapy
463. Aversive therapy refers to:
(A) An operant conditioning therapy that uses negative reinforcement to
continued behavior
(B) A classically conditioned therapy based on the theory that repeated pairings of negative effects lead to extinction
(C) Using generalization to let all negative behavior pairings occur
(D) Spontaneous recovery occurring long after a behavior that was based
on negative pairing has ended
(E) The use of modeling behavior so clients can see the consequences of negative behaviors
464. Gestalt therapy includes which of the following?
(A) Free association
(B) Electro-shock therapy
(C) Behavioral therapy
(D) Dream analysis
(E) Biomedical therapy
465. The process by which a client expresses strong emotion toward the
therapist is known as which of the following?
(A) Transference
(B) Free association
(C) Dynamic therapy
(D) Resistance
(E) Projection
466. Which of the following is a major goal of Aaron Beck’s cognitive therapy?
(A) To rid an individual of his or her internal negative thought process
(B) To change an individual’s negative behavior
(C) To enable a person to become self-actualized
(D) To stop individuals from using selective attention
(E) To help a client change learned or modeled behavior
467. Jana wants to be a doctor when she grows up, but she has one serious problem she is terribly afraid of blood. Since she was a little girl she has passed out at the mere sight of blood. To overcome this fear so that she can pursue her dream of becoming a doctor, her therapist exposes her to blood while trying to relax her. What type of therapy is this?
(A) Social-cognitive therapy
(B) Systematic desensitization
(C) Behavioral therapy
(D) Rational emotive therapy
(E) Extinction
467. Jana wants to be a doctor when she grows up, but she has one serious
problem; she is terribly afraid of blood. Since she was a little girl she has
passed out at the mere sight of blood. To overcome this fear so that she
can pursue her dream of becoming a doctor, her therapist exposes her to
blood while trying to relax her. What type of therapy is this?
(A) Social-cognitive therapy
(B) Systematic desensitization
(C) Behavioral therapy
(D) Rational emotive therapy
(E) Extinction
468. One major difference between a humanist therapist and a behavioral therapist is that:
(A) A behavioral therapist focuses on one’s childhood.
(B) A humanist therapist pays attention to uncovering unconscious conflict.
(C) A behavioral therapist can off er medication to her or his clients.
(D) A humanist therapist focuses more on empathy and support for her or his clients.
(E) A behavioral therapist places all of the burden on the client for her or his own healing.
469. Rational emotive therapy was designed to:
(A) Teach clients relaxation techniques
(B) Explore the unconscious confl icts from a client’s childhood
(C) Challenge the self-defeating thoughts of the client
(D) Use antidepressant medication to overcome depression
(E) Use free association to uncover unconscious thoughts and feelings
470. The purpose of free association is to:
(A) Help bring unconscious confl ict to the surface
(B) Facilitate changing negative behaviors
(C) Change the client’s thought process
(D) Rid an individual of his or her sexual desires
(E) Help a patient relax
471. Light therapy is used to help which of the following disorders?
(A) Major depression
(B) Dysthymic disorder
(C) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
(D) Dissociative identity disorder
(E) Seasonal aff ective disorder
472. Which of the following terms is not associated with psychoanalysis?
(A) Self-actualization
(B) Free association
(C) Dream analysis
(D) Hypnosis
(E) Sexual impulse
473. Which of the following psychologists believed that some people tend to
have a pessimistic explanatory style, characterized by the tendency to blame
bad events on themselves?
(A) Aaron Beck
(B) Martin Seligman
(C) Karen Horney
(D) Sigmund Freud
(E) Abraham Maslow
474. What is the name of the widely used therapy that involves giving an
individual immediate information about the degree to which he or she can
change anxiety-related responses, thereby improving control over his or her
physiological process of arousal?
(A) Behavior modifi cation
(B) Systematic desensitization
(C) Behavioral therapy
(D) Biofeedback
(E) Cognitive therapy
475. Which of the following therapies has been found aff ective in treating
anxiety disorders, drug addictions, and autism?
(A) Psychoanalysis
(B) Social-cognitive therapy
(C) Behavioral therapy
(D) Biomedical feedback
(E) Gestalt therapy
476. John F. Kennedy’s Bay of Pigs failure was caused in large part by:
(A) Brainstorming
(B) Group cohesion
(C) Groupthink
(D) Deindividuation
(E) Diff usion of responsibility
477. Solomon Asch is most famous for his research on:
(A) Conformity
(B) Obedience
(C) Compliance
(D) Cohesion
(E) Polarization
478. When we perform well on a task we typically attribute our success to our
internal characteristics. Th is is known as:
(A) Fundamental attribution error
(B) Self-serving bias
(C) Self schema
(D) External attribution error
(E) Person schema
479. Th e Stanford Prison experiment was a prime example of which of the
following concepts?
(A) Conformity
(B) Compliance
(C) Obedience
(D) Cohesiveness
(E) Identifi cation
480. According to the theory of cognitive dissonance, attitudes are changed
(A) We are rewarded by society when our beliefs coincide with the
(B) Logical arguments compel us to alter our attitudes.
(C) Emotionally persuasive arguments motivate us to change our thought
(D) A state of tension motivates us to change our cognitive inconsistencies
by making our beliefs more consistent.
(E) When our beliefs and behaviors are too similar it causes an unpleasant
psychological state of tension.
481. A person who agrees to a small request initially is more likely to comply
with a larger demand later. Th is describes which phenomenon?
(A) Door-in-face eff ect
(B) Foot-in-door eff ect
(C) Low-ball technique
(D) High-ball technique
(E) Door-in-foot technique
482. In Milgram’s experiment, subjects who gave large shocks rationalized that
they were not personally responsible for their actions. Th is raises questions
about our willingness to commit inhumane acts as a result of:
(A) Coercive power
(B) Expert infl uence
(C) Obedience to authority
(D) Conformity to group pressure
(E) Individual compliance
483. Which of the following was a factor in determining the degree of
obedience in Milgram’s series of experiments?
(A) Distance between the teacher and the learner
(B) Tone of voice of the teacher
(C) Whether or not the teacher was male or female
(D) Whether or not the teacher was an expert in his or her fi eld
(E) Th e age of the teacher
484. In a situation in which an individual is having a seizure on the street,
helping could be inhibited by which of the following concepts?
(A) Groupthink
(B) Social comparison theory
(C) Risky shift
(D) Diff usion of responsibility
(E) Compliance
485. When making the “attribution error,” we tend to overestimate the
importance of when judging the behaviors of others.
(A) Situational factors
(B) Personal factors
(C) Gender
(D) Intelligence
(E) Age
486. Th rough his experiments, Solomon Asch was able to demonstrate that:
(A) People will always conform in a group setting.
(B) Obedience to authority is determined by the perceived power of the
authority figure.
(C) Size of majority does not influence how many people will conform.
(D) Compliance occurs in large groups.
(E) Lack of unanimity greatly reduces the pressure to conform.
487. One reason why many groups have some form of initiation rites and rituals
is to have:
(A) Group norms
(B) Deindividuation
(C) Group cohesion
(D) Task-oriented groups
(E) Socially oriented groups
488. The Lapierre experiment proved that:
(A) People’s behavior usually corresponds with their attitudes.
(B) People’s attitudes do not necessarily reflect their behavior.
(C) People tend to lie when asked to fi ll out a survey.
(D) People are obedient in front of any person of authority.
(E) Most people conform because of fear of embarrassment.
489. Damion rewrote his paper at the suggestion of his professor, even though
he did not agree with the suggestions. Th is is an example of:
(A) Obedience
(B) Conformity
(C) Compliance
(D) Diff usion
(E) Cognitive dissonance
490. Which of the following scenarios is an example of deindividuation?
(A) Cindy fi nds that working in her group brings high levels of
performance compared to students who work alone.
(B) Mindy forms a study group because she wants academic help, social
support, and motivation.
(C) Amy has a poor running performance in competition; she performs
even worse in front of a larger crowd.
(D) Torrie honks her horn loudly for quite a while because she has little
chance of being personally identified.
(E) Jamie does not help the girl being attacked because the other
bystanders are taking little action.
491. When group discussions change individuals’ judgments, it is known as:
(A) Risky shift
(B) Groupthink
(C) Group polarization
(D) Social comparison
(E) Group cohesion
492. Which of the following examples best illustrates a way to avoid groupthink
from occurring?
(A) Choose a group captain to make all the fi nal decisions.
(B) Allow the group’s members the freedom to express diff ering opinions.
(C) Have every group member come in with a specifi c idea to bring to the
(D) Only allow one person in the group to speak at a time.
(E) Make the group socially oriented before making any fi nal decisions.
493. Of the following examples, which would be the best example of selfserving
(A) Michael, who believes that everyone should give to charities
(B) Paris, who believes she failed her math test even though she always
gets an A in math
(C) Janet, who is always her teacher’s favorite student
(D) Randy, who believes he works harder than others and is
(E) Rebi, who overestimates her ability to run the after-school program
for young children
494. After Jean was told by one of her professors that she would never succeed
in law school, she stopped reading and completing her assignments.
Eventually Jean did drop out of law school. Th is is an example of:
(A) Self-fulfi lling prophecy
(B) Self-serving bias
(C) Social loafi ng
(D) Groupthink
(E) Diff usion of responsibility
495. David has always opposed the death penalty, believing it is not the place
of the government to take the life of another person. After his best friend
was murdered, David wanted nothing more than to see the murderer get
the justice he or she deserved. Because the murder occurred in the state of
Texas, this would mean justice would be served with the death penalty.
Th e dissonance theory would state that:
(A) David would have no confl ict in seeing the murderer put to death.
(B) David would have to change one of his attitudes to feel less tension.
(C) Justifi cation of the death penalty would be appropriate in this
(D) Morally, David would not support the death penalty under any
(E) David would change his opinion in support of the death penalty.
496. Th e tendency to attribute our own behavior to situational causes and the
behavior of others to personal causes is an example of:
(A) Self-fulfi lling prophecy
(B) Actor-observer bias
(C) Dispositional attribution
(D) Attribution theory
(E) Just-world phenomenon
497. Evidence suggests that individuals tend to be attracted to others who are:
(A) Nearly opposite in all areas
(B) Similar to themselves in terms of perspective and values
(C) Physically more attractive than they are
(D) Unlikely to criticize or judge them
(E) Less intelligent than themselves
498. Th e tendency to “blame the victim” in a rape case is an example of which
of the following terms?
(A) Fundamental attribution error
(B) Deindividuation
(C) Self-serving bias
(D) Th e just-world phenomenon
(E) Self-fulfi lling prophecy
499. In the presence of the largest crowd she has ever seen, Heather gives her
fi nest piano performance. Th is is an example of:
(A) Group cohesion
(B) Deindividuation
(C) Group polarization
(D) Social inhibition
(E) Social facilitation
500. According to the diff usion of responsibility theory, the biggest factor in
predicting whether or not a bystander will help someone in need is:
(A) Th e duration of the situation
(B) Whether or not the person in need of help is male or female
(C) Th e number of other bystanders at the scene
(D) Th e level of perceived threat
(E) Whether or not the person actually asked for help